The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 17052 of the Revenue and Taxation Code is amended to read:
17052.
(a) (1) For each taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 2015, there shall be allowed against the “net tax,” as defined by Section 17039, an earned income tax credit in an amount equal to an amount determined in accordance with Section 32 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to earned income, as applicable for federal income tax purposes for the taxable year, except as otherwise provided in this section.
(2) (A) The amount of the credit determined under Section 32 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to earned income, as modified by this section, shall be multiplied by the earned income tax credit adjustment factor for the taxable year.
(B) Unless otherwise specified in the annual Budget Act, the earned income tax credit adjustment factor for a taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 2015, shall be 0 percent.
(C) The earned income tax credit authorized by this section shall only be operative for taxable years for which resources are authorized in the annual Budget Act for the Franchise Tax Board to oversee and audit returns associated with the credit.
(b) (1) In lieu of the table prescribed in Section 32(b)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to percentages, the credit percentage and the phaseout percentage shall be determined as follows:
In the case of an eligible individual with:
The credit percentage is:
The phaseout percentage is:
No qualifying children
7.65%
7.65%
1 qualifying child
34%
34%
2 or more qualifying children
40%
40%
(2) (A) In lieu of the table prescribed in Section 32(b)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code, the earned income amount and the phaseout amount shall be determined as follows:
In the case of an eligible individual with:
The earned income amount is:
The phaseout amount is:
No qualifying children
$3,290
$3,290
1 qualifying child
$4,940
$4,940
2 or more qualifying children
$6,935
$6,935
(B) Section 32(b)(2)(B) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to joint returns, shall not apply.
(3) Section 32(b)(3)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to increased percentage for three or more qualifying children, is modified by substituting “the credit percentage and phaseout percentage is 45 percent” for “the credit percentage is 45 percent.”
(c) (1) Section 32(c)(1)(A)(ii)(I) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified by substituting “this state” for “the United States.”
(2) Section 32(c)(2)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified as follows:
(A) Section 32(c)(2)(A)(i) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified by deleting “plus” and inserting in lieu thereof the following: “and only if such amounts are subject to withholding pursuant to Division 6 (commencing with Section 13000) of the Unemployment Insurance
Code.”
Code, plus
”
(B)
In lieu of
Section 32(c)(2)(A)(ii) of the Internal Revenue
Code shall not apply.
Code, substitute the following: “the amount of the taxpayer’s reportable gross income from self-employment for the taxable year.” For purposes of this section, “reportable gross income from self-employment” means gross income derived by an individual from any trade or business carried on by such individual that is properly reported to the Secretary on an information return for the taxable year and reported on a written statement furnished to that individual as required pursuant to Section 6041 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to information at source, or Section 6041A of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to returns regarding payments of remuneration for services and direct sales.
(3) Section 32(c)(3)(C) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to place of abode, is modified by substituting “this state” for “the United States.”
(d) Section 32(i)(1) of the Internal Revenue Code is modified by substituting “$3,400” for “$2,200.”
(e) In lieu of Section 32(j) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to inflation adjustments, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2016, the amounts specified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) and in subdivision (d) shall be recomputed annually in the same manner as the recomputation of income tax brackets under subdivision (h) of Section 17041.
(f) If the amount allowable as a credit under this section exceeds the tax liability computed under this part for the taxable year, the excess shall be credited against other amounts due, if any, and the balance, if any, shall be paid from the Tax Relief and Refund Account and refunded to the taxpayer.
(g) The Franchise Tax Board may prescribe rules, guidelines, or procedures necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of this section. Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code shall not apply to any rule, guideline, or procedure prescribed by the Franchise Tax Board pursuant to this section.
(h) Notwithstanding any other law, amounts refunded pursuant to this section shall be treated in the same manner as the federal earned income refund for the purpose of determining eligibility to receive benefits under Division 9 (commencing with Section 10000) of the Welfare and Institutions Code or amounts of those benefits.
(i) (1) For the purpose of implementing the credit allowed by this section for the 2015 taxable year, the Franchise Tax Board shall be exempt from the following:
(A) Special Project Report requirements under State Administrative Manual Sections 4819.36, 4945, and 4945.2.
(B) Special Project Report requirements under Statewide Information Management Manual Section 30.
(C) Section 11.00 of the 2015 Budget Act.
(D) Sections 12101, 12101.5, 12102, and 12102.1 of the Public Contract Code.
(2) The Franchise Tax Board shall formally incorporate the scope, costs, and schedule changes associated with the implementation of the credit allowed by this section in its next anticipated Special Project Report for its Enterprise Data to Revenue Project.
(j) (1) In accordance with Section 41 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, the purpose of the California Earned Income Tax Credit is to reduce poverty among California’s poorest working families and individuals. To measure whether the credit achieves its intended purpose, the Franchise Tax Board shall annually prepare a written report on the following:
(A) The number of tax returns claiming the credit.
(B) The number of individuals represented on tax returns claiming the credit.
(C) The average credit amount on tax returns claiming the credit.
(D) The distribution of credits by number of dependents and income ranges. The income ranges shall encompass the phase-in and phaseout ranges of the credit.
(E) Using data from tax returns claiming the credit, including an estimate of the federal tax credit determined under Section 32 of the Internal Revenue Code, an estimate of the number of families who are lifted out of deep poverty by the credit and an estimate of the number of families who are lifted out of deep poverty by the combination of the credit and the federal tax credit. For the purposes of this subdivision, a family is in “deep poverty” if the income of the family is less than 50 percent of the federal poverty threshold.
(2) The Franchise Tax Board shall provide the written report to the Senate Committee on Budget and Fiscal Review, the Assembly Committee on Budget, the Senate and Assembly Committees on Appropriations, the Senate Committee on Governance and Finance, the Assembly Committees on Revenue and Taxation, and the Senate and Assembly Committees on Human Services.
(k) The tax credit allowed by this section shall be known as the California Earned Income Tax Credit.
(l) The amendments made to this section by the act adding this subdivision shall apply for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2016.
SECTION 1.
Section 23153 of the
Revenue and Taxation Code
is amended to read:
23153.
(a)Every corporation described in subdivision (b) shall be subject to the minimum franchise tax specified in subdivision (d) from the earlier of the date of incorporation, qualification, or commencing to do business within this state, until the effective date of dissolution or withdrawal as provided in Section 23331 or, if later, the date the corporation ceases to do business within the limits of this state.
(b)Unless expressly exempted by this part or the California Constitution, subdivision (a) shall apply to each of the following:
(1)Every corporation that is incorporated under the laws of this state.
(2)Every corporation that is qualified to transact intrastate business in this state pursuant to Chapter 21 (commencing with Section 2100) of Division 1 of Title 1 of the Corporations Code.
(3)Every corporation that is doing business in this state.
(c)The following entities are not subject to the minimum franchise tax specified in this section:
(1)Credit unions.
(2)Nonprofit cooperative associations organized pursuant to Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 54001) of Division 20 of the Food and Agricultural Code that have been issued the certificate of the board of supervisors prepared pursuant to Section 54042 of the Food and Agricultural Code. The association shall be exempt from the minimum franchise tax for five consecutive taxable years, commencing with the first taxable year for which the certificate is issued pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 54042 of the Food and Agricultural Code. This paragraph only applies to nonprofit cooperative associations organized on or after January 1, 1994.
(d)(1)Except as provided in paragraph (2), paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 23151, paragraph (1) of subdivision (f) of Section 23181, and paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 23183, corporations subject to the minimum franchise tax shall pay annually to the state a minimum franchise tax of eight hundred dollars ($800).
(2)The minimum franchise tax shall be twenty-five dollars ($25) for each of the following:
(A)A corporation formed under the laws of this state whose principal business when formed was gold mining, which is inactive and has not done business within the limits of the state since 1950.
(B)A corporation formed under the laws of this state whose principal business when formed was quicksilver mining, which is inactive and has not done business within the limits of the state since 1971, or has been inactive for a period of 24 consecutive months or more.
(3)For purposes of paragraph (2), a corporation shall not be considered to have done business if it engages in business other than mining.
(e)Notwithstanding subdivision (a), for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 1999, and before January 1, 2000, every “qualified new corporation” shall pay annually to the state a minimum franchise tax of five hundred dollars ($500) for the second taxable year. This subdivision shall apply to any corporation that is a qualified new corporation and is incorporated on or after January 1, 1999, and before January 1, 2000.
(1)The determination of the gross receipts of a corporation, for purposes of this subdivision, shall be made by including the gross receipts of each member of the commonly controlled group, as defined in Section 25105, of which the corporation is a member.
(2)“Gross receipts, less returns and allowances reportable to this state,” means the sum of the gross receipts from the production of business income, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 25120, and the gross receipts from the production of nonbusiness income, as defined in subdivision (d) of Section 25120.
(3)“Qualified new corporation” means a corporation that is incorporated under the laws of this state or has qualified to transact intrastate business in this state, that begins business operations at or after the time of its incorporation and that reasonably estimates that it will have gross receipts, less returns and allowances, reportable to this state for the taxable year of one million dollars ($1,000,000) or less. “Qualified new corporation” does not include any corporation that began business operations as a sole proprietorship, a partnership, or any other form of business entity prior to its incorporation. This subdivision shall not apply to any corporation that reorganizes solely for the purpose of reducing its minimum franchise tax.
(4)This subdivision shall not apply to limited partnerships, as defined in Section 17935, limited liability companies, as defined in Section 17941, limited liability partnerships, as described in Section 17948, charitable organizations, as described in Section 23703, regulated investment companies, as defined in Section 851 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to definition of regulated investment company, real estate investment trusts, as defined in Section 856 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to definition of real estate investment trust, real estate mortgage investment conduits, as defined in Section 860D of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to REMIC defined, qualified Subchapter S subsidiaries, as defined in Section 1361(b)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to treatment of wholly owned subsidiaries, or to the formation of any subsidiary corporation, to the extent applicable.
(5)For any taxable year beginning on or after January 1, 1999, and before January 1, 2000, if a corporation has qualified to pay five hundred dollars ($500) for the second taxable year under this subdivision, but in its second taxable year, the corporation’s gross receipts, as determined under paragraphs (1) and (2), exceed one million dollars ($1,000,000), an additional tax in the amount equal to three hundred dollars ($300) for the second taxable year shall be due and payable by the corporation on the due date of its return, without regard to extension, for that year.
(f)(1)Notwithstanding subdivision (a), every corporation that incorporates or qualifies to do business in this state on or after January 1, 2000, shall not be subject to the minimum franchise tax for its first taxable year.
(2)This subdivision shall not apply to limited partnerships, as defined in Section 17935, limited liability companies, as defined in Section 17941, limited liability partnerships, as described in Section 17948, charitable organizations, as described in Section 23703, regulated investment companies, as defined in Section 851 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to definition of regulated investment company, real estate investment trusts, as defined in Section 856 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to definition of real estate investment trust, real estate mortgage investment conduits, as defined in Section 860D of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to REMIC defined, and qualified Subchapter S subsidiaries, as defined in Section 1361(b)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to treatment of wholly owned subsidiaries, to the extent applicable.
(3)This subdivision shall not apply to any corporation that reorganizes solely for the purpose of avoiding payment of its minimum franchise tax.
(g)Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a domestic corporation, as defined in Section 167 of the Corporations Code, that files a certificate of dissolution in the office of the Secretary of State pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 1905 of the Corporations Code, prior to its amendment by the act amending this subdivision, and that does not thereafter do business shall not be subject to the minimum franchise tax for taxable years beginning on or after the date of that filing.
(h)The minimum franchise tax imposed by paragraph (1) of subdivision (d) shall not be increased by the Legislature by more than 10 percent during any calendar year.
(i)(1)Notwithstanding subdivision (a), a corporation that is a small business solely owned by a deployed member of the United States Armed Forces shall not be subject to the minimum franchise tax for any taxable year the owner is deployed and the corporation operates at a loss or ceases operation.
(2)The Franchise Tax Board may promulgate regulations as necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of this subdivision, including a definition for “ceases operation.”
(3)For the purposes of this subdivision, all of the following definitions apply:
(A)“Deployed” means being called to active duty or active service during a period when a Presidential Executive order specifies that the United States is engaged in combat or homeland defense. “Deployed” does not include either of the following:
(i)Temporary duty for the sole purpose of training or processing.
(ii)A permanent change of station.
(B)“Operates at a loss” means negative net income as defined in Section 24341.
(C)“Small business” means a corporation with total income from all sources derived from, or attributable, to the state of two hundred fifty thousand dollars ($250,000) or less.
(4)This subdivision shall become inoperative for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2020.
(j)Notwithstanding subdivision (a), for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2017, corporations subject to the minimum franchise tax shall pay annually to the state a minimum franchise tax of one hundred fifty dollars ($150).
(2)This subdivision shall not apply to limited partnerships, as defined in Section 17935, limited liability companies, as defined in Section 17941, limited liability partnerships, as described in Section 17948, charitable organizations, as described in Section 23703, regulated investment companies, as defined in Section 851 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to definition of regulated investment company, real estate investment trusts, as defined in Section 856 of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to the definition of real estate investment trust, and real estate mortgage investment conduits, as defined in Section 860D of the Internal Revenue Code, relating to REMIC defined.
SEC. 2.
This act provides for a tax levy within the meaning of Article IV of the Constitution and shall go into immediate effect.

Summary: The Personal Income Tax Law allows various credits against the taxes imposed by that law, including certain credits that are allowed in modified conformity to credits allowed by federal income tax laws. Federal income tax laws allow a refundable earned income tax credit for certain low-income individuals who have earned income from wages, salaries, tips, and other employee compensation plus net earnings from self-employment and who meet certain other requirements. The Personal Income Tax Law, for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, in modified conformity with federal income tax laws, allows an earned income credit against personal income tax, which is only for earned income from wages, salaries, tips, and other employee compensation, and a payment in excess of that credit amount, to an eligible individual that is equal to that portion of the earned income tax credit allowed by federal law as determined by the earned income tax credit adjustment factor as set forth in the annual Budget Act. This bill would, for taxable years beginning on and after January 1, 2016, expand the earned income credit allowed by the Personal Income Tax Law by providing additional conformity with federal income tax law to include specified net earnings from self-employment in earned income thus allowing an earned income credit for taxpayers for those earnings. Existing law establishes the continuously appropriated Tax Relief and Refund Account and provides that payments required to be made to taxpayers or other persons from the Personal Income Tax Fund are to be paid from that account, including any amount allowable as an earned income credit in excess of any tax liabilities. By authorizing new payments from that account for additional amounts in excess of personal income tax liabilities, this bill would make an appropriation. Existing law imposes an annual minimum franchise tax, except as provided, on every corporation incorporated in this state, qualified to transact intrastate business in this state, or doing business in this state. Existing law, until taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, exempts a corporation and a limited liability company that are small businesses solely owned by a deployed member of the United States Armed Forces, as specified, from paying the minimum franchise tax, or the annual tax, for the privilege of doing business in this state if the corporation or limited liability company ceases operation or operates at a loss, as defined. The bill would reduce the annual minimum franchise tax to $150 for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2017, for specified corporations. This bill would also extend the exemption for corporations and limited liability companies solely owned by deployed members of the United States Armed Forces until January 1, 2020. This bill would take effect immediately as a tax levy.

An act to amend Section
23153
17052
of the Revenue and Taxation Code, relating to
taxation, to take effect immediately, tax levy.
taxation
, and making an appropriation therefor.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 1812.82 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
1812.82.
Every contract for health studio services shall be in writing and shall be subject to the provisions of this title. A copy of the written contract shall be physically given to or delivered by email to the customer at the time he or she signs the contract.
SEC. 2.
Section 1812.84 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
1812.84.
(a) A contract for health studio services may not require payments or financing by the buyer to exceed the term of the contract, nor may the term of the contract exceed three years. This subdivision does not apply to a member’s obligation to pay valid, outstanding moneys due under the contract, including moneys to be paid pursuant to a termination notice period in the contract in which the termination notice period does not exceed 30 days.
(b) A contract for health studio services shall include a statement printed in a size at least 14-point type or presented in an equally legible electronic format that discloses the initial or minimum length of the term of the contract. This statement shall be placed above the space reserved for the signature of the buyer.
(c) At any time a cancellation is authorized by this title, a contract for health studio services may be canceled by the buyer in person, via email from an email address on file with the health studio, or via first-class mail.
SEC. 3.
Section 1812.85 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
1812.85.
(a) Every contract for health studio services shall provide that performance of the agreed-upon services will begin within six months after the date the contract is entered into. The consumer may cancel the contract and receive a pro rata refund if the health studio fails to provide the specific facilities advertised or offered in writing by the time indicated. If no time is indicated in the contract, the consumer may cancel the contract within six months after the execution of the contract and shall receive a pro rata refund. If a health studio fails to meet a timeline set forth in this section, the consumer may cancel the contract at any time after the expiration of the timeline. However, if following the expiration of the timeline, the health studio provides the advertised or agreed-upon services, the consumer may cancel the contract up to 10 days after those services are provided.
(b) (1) Every contract for health studio services shall, in addition, contain on its face, and in close proximity to the space reserved for the signature of the buyer, a conspicuous statement in a size equal to at least 10-point boldface type, as follows:

“You, the buyer, may choose to cancel this agreement at any time prior to midnight of the fifth business day of the health studio after the date of this agreement, excluding Sundays and holidays. To cancel this agreement, mail, email, or deliver a signed and dated notice that states that you, the buyer, are canceling this agreement, or words of similar effect. The notice shall be sent via first-class mail, via email from an email address on file with the health studio, or delivered in person to
_____ (Name of health studio operator) _____
at _____ (Address and email address of health studio operator).” _____
(2) The contract for health studio services shall contain on the first page, in a type size no smaller than that generally used in the body of the document, the following: (A) the name and mailing address of the health studio operator to which the notice of cancellation is to be mailed, (B) the email address of the health studio operator to which a notice of cancellation email is to be sent, and (C) the date the buyer signed the contract.
(3) The contract shall provide a description of the services, facilities, and hours of access to which the consumer is entitled or state where that information is available on the health studio operator’s Internet Web site. Any services, facilities, and hours of access that are not described in the contract or on the health studio operator’s Internet Web site shall be considered optional services, and these optional services shall be considered as separate contracts for the purposes of this title and Section 1812.83.
(4) Until the health studio operator has complied with this section, the buyer may cancel the contract for health studio services.
(5) All moneys paid pursuant to a contract for health studio services shall be refunded within 10 days after receipt of the notice of cancellation, except that payment shall be made for any health studio services received prior to cancellation.
(c) If at any time during the term of the contract, including a transfer of the contractual obligation, the health studio eliminates or substantially reduces the scope of the facilities, such as swimming pools or tennis courts, that were described in the contract, in an advertisement relating to the specific location, or in a written offer, and available to the consumer upon execution of the contract, the consumer may cancel the contract and receive a pro rata refund. The consumer may not cancel the contract pursuant to this subdivision if the health studio, after giving reasonable notice to its members, temporarily takes facilities out of operation for reasonable repairs, modifications, substitutions, or improvements. This subdivision shall not be interpreted to give the consumer the right to cancel a contract because of changes to the type or quantity of classes or equipment offered, provided the consumer is informed in the contract that the health studio reserves the right to make changes to the type or quantity of classes or equipment offered and the changes to the type or quantity of classes or equipment offered are reasonable under the circumstances.
(d) (1) If a contract for health studio services requires payment of one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500) to two thousand dollars ($2,000), inclusive, including initiation fees or initial membership fees, by the person receiving the services or the use of the facility, the person shall have the right to cancel the contract within 20 days after the contract is executed.
(2) If a contract for health studio services requires payment of two thousand one dollars ($2,001) to two thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500), inclusive, including initiation fees or initial membership fees, by the person receiving the services or the use of the facility, the person shall have the right to cancel the contract within 30 days after the contract is executed.
(3) If a contract for health studio services requires payment of two thousand five hundred one dollars ($2,501) or more, including initiation fees or initial membership fees, by the person receiving the services or the use of the facility, the person shall have the right to cancel the contract within 45 days after the contract is executed.
(4) The right of cancellation provided in this subdivision shall be set out in the membership contract.
(5) The rights and remedies under this paragraph are cumulative to any rights and remedies under other law.
(6) A health studio entering into a contract for health studio services that requires a payment of less than one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500), including initiation or initial membership fees and exclusive of interest or finance charges, by the person receiving the services or the use of the facilities, is not required to comply with paragraph (1), (2), or (3).
(e) Upon cancellation, the consumer shall be liable only for that portion of the total contract payment, including initiation fees and other charges however denominated, that has been available for use by the consumer, based upon a pro rata calculation over the term of the contract. The remaining portion of the contract payment shall be returned to the consumer by the health studio.

Summary: Existing law requires every health studio services contract to be in writing and that a copy of the written contract be given to the customer at the time he or she signs the contract. This bill would, in the alternative, require that the contract be delivered by email to the customer at the time he or she signs the contract. Existing law requires the contract to include a statement that discloses the length of the term of the contract in at least 14-point type and requires the contract to contain on the first page the name and address of the health studio operator to which a notice of cancellation can be mailed and the date the buyer signed the contract. This bill would, instead, require the contract to disclose the initial or minimum length of the term of the contract and would, in the alternative, require the contract to be presented in an electronic format that is as equally legible as the printed contract. Existing law requires the contract to provide a description of the services, facilities, and hours of access that the consumer is entitled to and provides that any services, facilities, and hours of access that are not described in the contract are to be considered optional services and as separate contracts, as specified. This bill would, in the alternative, require a contract to state where the description of services, facilities, and hours of access that the consumer is entitled to is available on the health studio operator’s Internet Web site and would provide that any services, facilities, and hours of access that are not described in the contract or on the health studio operator’s Internet Web site are to be considered optional services and as separate contracts, as specified. Existing law authorizes a consumer to cancel a contract for health studio services within specified timeframes after the contract is executed, if the health studio fails to provide the specific facilities advertised or offered or if the health studio eliminates or reduces the scope of the facilities, as specified. This bill would specify that a contract for health studio services may be canceled by the buyer in person, via email from an email address on file with the health studio, or via first-class mail, and would require that the email address to which a notice of cancellation email is to be sent be on the first page of the contract. The bill would make other conforming changes.

An act to amend Sections 1812.82, 1812.84, and 1812.85 of the Civil Code, relating to health studio services.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 42924.5 is added to the Public Resources Code, to read:
42924.5.
(a) On or before July 1, 2017, the department shall develop guidance for collecting and recycling recyclable materials in office buildings of state agencies and large state facilities.
(b) For purposes of this section, “recyclable materials” shall include, but are not limited to, paper, plastic, metal, and organic waste.
(c) On and after July 1, 2018, a state agency and large state facility, for each office building of the state agency or large state facility, shall provide adequate receptacles, signage, education, and staffing, and arrange for recycling services consistent with Sections 42649.2 and 42649.81.
(d) At least once per year, a state agency and large state facility shall review the adequacy and condition of receptacles for recyclable material and of associated signage, education, and staffing.
(e) For purposes of this section, “state agency” and “large state facility” do not include buildings or facilities of community college districts or their campuses.
SEC. 2.
Section 42926 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:
42926.
(a) In addition to the information provided to the department pursuant to Section 12167.1 of the Public Contract Code, each state agency shall submit an annual report to the department summarizing its progress in reducing solid waste as required by Section 42921. The annual report shall be due on or before May 1 of each year. The information in this report shall encompass the previous calendar year.
(b) A state agency’s annual report to the department shall, at a minimum, include all of the following:
(1) Calculations of annual disposal reduction.
(2) Information on the changes in waste generated or disposed of due to increases or decreases in employees, economics, or other factors.
(3) A summary of progress made in implementing the integrated waste management plan.
(4) The extent to which the state agency intends to utilize programs or facilities established by the local agency for the handling, diversion, and disposal of solid waste. If the state agency does not intend to utilize those established programs or facilities, the state agency shall identify sufficient disposal capacity for solid waste that is not source reduced, recycled, or composted.
(5) A summary of the state agency’s compliance with the requirements specified in subdivisions (c) and (d) of Section 42924.5.
(6) Other information relevant to compliance with Section 42921.
(c) The department shall use, but is not limited to the use of, the annual report in the determination of whether the agency’s integrated waste management plan needs to be revised.
(d) For purposes of this section, the meaning of “state agency” does not include a district agricultural association, as defined in Section 3951 of the Food and Agricultural Code.
SEC. 2.5.
Section 42926 of the Public Resources Code is amended to read:
42926.
(a) In addition to the information provided to the department pursuant to Section 12167.1 of the Public Contract Code, each state agency shall submit an annual report to the department summarizing its progress in reducing solid waste as required by Section 42921. The annual report shall be due on or before May 1 of each year. The information in this report shall encompass the previous calendar year.
(b) A state agency’s annual report to the department shall, at a minimum, include all of the following:
(1) Calculations of annual disposal reduction.
(2) Information on the changes in waste generated or disposed of due to increases or decreases in employees, economics, or other factors.
(3) A summary of progress made in implementing the integrated waste management plan.
(4) The extent to which the state agency intends to utilize programs or facilities established by the local agency for the handling, diversion, and disposal of solid waste. If the state agency does not intend to utilize those established programs or facilities, the state agency shall identify sufficient disposal capacity for solid waste that is not source reduced, recycled, or composted.
(5) A summary of the state agency’s compliance with the requirements specified in subdivisions (c) and (d) of Section 42924.5.
(6) A summary of the state agency’s compliance with Chapter 12.8 (commencing with Section 42649) and Chapter 12.9 (commencing with Section 42649.8), if applicable.
(7) Other information relevant to compliance with Section 42921.
(c) The department shall use, but is not limited to the use of, the annual report in the determination of whether the agency’s integrated waste management plan needs to be revised.
(d) For purposes of this section, the meaning of “state agency” does not include a district agricultural association, as defined in Section 3951 of the Food and Agricultural Code.
SEC. 3.
Section 2.5 of this bill incorporates amendments to Section 42926 of the Public Resources Code proposed by both this bill and Assembly Bill 2396. It shall only become operative if (1) both bills are enacted and become effective on or before January 1, 2017, (2) each bill amends Section 42926 of the Public Resources Code, and (3) this bill is enacted after Assembly Bill 2396, in which case Section 2 of this bill shall not become operative.

Summary: Existing law requires the Department of Resources Recycling and Recovery to develop and adopt requirements relating to adequate areas for collecting, storing, and loading recyclable materials in state buildings. Existing law requires each state agency or large state facility, when entering into a new lease, or renewing an existing lease, to ensure that adequate areas are provided for, and adequate personnel are available to oversee, the collection, storage, and loading of recyclable materials in compliance with those requirements. This bill would require the department, on or before July 1, 2017, to develop guidance for collecting and recycling recyclable materials in office buildings of state agencies and large state facilities, except buildings and facilities of community college districts or their campuses. The bill would require that a covered state agency and large state facility, on and after July 1, 2018, provide adequate receptacles, signage, education, and staffing, and arrange for recycling services consistent with specified law, for each office building of the state agency or large state facility. The bill would require, at least once per year, a covered state agency and large state facility to review the adequacy and condition of receptacles for recyclable material and of associated signage, education, and staffing. Existing law requires each state agency to submit an annual report to the department summarizing its progress in reducing solid waste, as specified. This bill would require that report to include a summary of the state agency’s compliance with this act. This bill would incorporate additional changes in Section 42926 of the Public Resources Code proposed by AB 2396 that would become operative only if AB 2396 and this bill are both chaptered and become effective on or before January 1, 2017, and this bill is chaptered last.

An act to amend Section 42926 of, and to add Section 42924.5 to, the Public Resources Code, relating to recycling.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 628 of the Welfare and Institutions Code is amended to read:
628.
(a) (1) Upon delivery to the probation officer of a minor who has been taken into temporary custody under the provisions of this article, the probation officer shall immediately investigate the circumstances of the minor and the facts surrounding his or her being taken into custody and shall immediately release the minor to the custody of his or her parent, legal guardian, or responsible relative unless it can be demonstrated upon the evidence before the court that continuance in the home is contrary to the minor’s welfare and one or more of the following conditions exist:
(A) Continued detention of the minor is a matter of immediate and urgent necessity for the protection of the minor or reasonable necessity for the protection of the person or property of another.
(B) The minor is likely to flee the jurisdiction of the court.
(C) The minor has violated an order of the juvenile court.
(2) The probation officer’s decision to detain a minor who is currently a dependent of the juvenile court pursuant to Section 300 or the subject of a petition to declare him or her a dependent of the juvenile court pursuant to Section 300 and who has been removed from the custody of his or her parent or guardian by the juvenile court shall not be based on any of the following:
(A) The minor’s status as a dependent of the juvenile court or as the subject of a petition to declare him or her a dependent of the juvenile court.
(B) A determination that continuance in the minor’s current placement is contrary to the minor’s welfare.
(C) The child welfare services department’s inability to provide a placement for the minor.
(3) The probation officer shall immediately release a minor described in paragraph (2) to the custody of the child welfare services department or his or her current foster parent or other caregiver unless the probation officer determines that one or more of the conditions in paragraph (1) exist.
(4) This section does not limit a probation officer’s authority to refer a minor to child welfare services.
(b) If the probation officer has reason to believe that the minor is at risk of entering foster care placement as defined in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 727.4, the probation officer shall, as part of the investigation undertaken pursuant to subdivision (a), make reasonable efforts, as described in paragraph (5) of subdivision (d) of Section 727.4, to prevent or eliminate the need for removal of the minor from his or her home.
(c) In any case in which there is reasonable cause for believing that a minor who is under the care of a physician or surgeon or a hospital, clinic, or other medical facility and cannot be immediately moved is a person described in subdivision (d) of Section 300, the minor shall be deemed to have been taken into temporary custody and delivered to the probation officer for the purposes of this chapter while he or she is at the office of the physician or surgeon or that medical facility.
(d) (1) It is the intent of the Legislature that this subdivision shall comply with paragraph (29) of subsection (a) of Section 671 of Title 42 of the United States Code as added by the Fostering Connections to Success and Increasing Adoptions Act of 2008 (Public Law 110-351). It is further the intent of the Legislature that the identification and notification of relatives shall be made as early as possible after the removal of a youth who is at risk of entering foster care placement.
(2) If the minor is detained and the probation officer has reason to believe that the minor is at risk of entering foster care placement, as defined in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (d) of Section 727.4, then the probation officer shall conduct, within 30 days, an investigation in order to identify and locate all grandparents, adult siblings, and other relatives of the child, as defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (f) of Section 319, including any other adult relatives suggested by the parents. The probation officer shall provide to all adult relatives who are located, except when that relative’s history of family or domestic violence makes notification inappropriate, within 30 days of the date on which the child is detained, written notification and shall also, whenever appropriate, provide oral notification, in person or by telephone, of all the following information:
(A) The child has been removed from the custody of his or her parent or parents, or his or her guardians.
(B) An explanation of the various options to participate in the care and placement of the child and support for the child’s family, including any options that may be lost by failing to respond. The notice shall provide information about providing care for the child, how to become a foster family home or approved relative or nonrelative extended family member as defined in Section 362.7, and additional services and support that are available in out-of-home placements. The notice shall also include information regarding the Kin-GAP Program (Article 4.5 (commencing with Section 11360) of Chapter 2 of Part 3 of Division 9), the CalWORKs program for approved relative caregivers (Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 11200) of Part 3 of Division 9), adoption and adoption assistance (Chapter 2.1 (commencing with Section 16115) of Part 4 of Division 9), as well as other options for contact with the child, including, but not limited to, visitation. When oral notification is provided, the probation officer is not required to provide detailed information about the various options to help with the care and placement of the child.
(3) The probation officer shall use due diligence in investigating the names and locations of the relatives pursuant to paragraph (2), including, but not limited to, asking the child in an age-appropriate manner about relatives important to the child, consistent with the child’s best interest, and obtaining information regarding the location of the child’s adult relatives.
(4) To the extent allowed by federal law as a condition of receiving funding under Title IV-E of the federal Social Security Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 670 et seq.), if the probation officer did not conduct the identification and notification of relatives, as required in paragraph (2), but the court orders foster care placement, the probation officer shall conduct the investigation to find and notify relatives within 30 days of the placement order. Nothing in this section shall be construed to delay foster care placement for an individual child.
SEC. 2.
To the extent that this act has an overall effect of increasing the costs already borne by a local agency for programs or levels of service mandated by the 2011 Realignment Legislation within the meaning of Section 36 of Article XIII of the California Constitution, it shall apply to local agencies only to the extent that the state provides annual funding for the cost increase. Any new program or higher level of service provided by a local agency pursuant to this act above the level for which funding has been provided shall not require a subvention of funds by the state nor otherwise be subject to Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution.

Summary: Existing law requires a probation officer, upon delivery of a minor who has been taken into temporary custody, to immediately investigate the circumstances of the minor and the facts surrounding the minor being taken into custody and to immediately release the minor to the custody of his or her parent, legal guardian, or responsible relative unless evidence before the court demonstrates that continuance in the home is contrary to the child’s welfare, and one or more specified circumstances is present, including, among others, that the minor is destitute. This bill would delete several of those specified circumstances. The bill would also prohibit the probation officer, when deciding whether to detain a minor who is currently a dependent of the juvenile court or the subject of a petition to declare him or her a dependent of the juvenile court and who has been removed from the custody of his or her parent or guardian by the juvenile court, from considering specified information, including, among others, the minor’s status as a dependent of the juvenile court or as the subject of a petition to declare him or her a dependent of the juvenile court. The bill would require a probation officer to immediately release that minor to the custody of the child welfare services department or his or her current foster parent or other caregiver, except as specified. By increasing the duties imposed on local child welfare services departments, this bill would create a state-mandated local program. The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement. This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.

An act to amend Section 628 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, relating to juveniles.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 402.1 of the Revenue and Taxation Code is amended to read:
402.1.
(a) In the assessment of land, the assessor shall consider the effect upon value of any enforceable restrictions to which the use of the land may be subjected. These restrictions shall include, but are not limited to, all of the following:
(1) Zoning.
(2) Recorded contracts with governmental agencies other than those provided in Sections 422, 422.5, and 422.7.
(3) Permit authority of, and permits issued by, governmental agencies exercising land use powers concurrently with local governments, including the California Coastal Commission and regional coastal commissions, the San Francisco Bay Conservation and Development Commission, and the Tahoe Regional Planning Agency.
(4) Development controls of a local government in accordance with any local coastal program certified pursuant to Division 20 (commencing with Section 30000) of the Public Resources Code.
(5) Development controls of a local government in accordance with a local protection program, or any component thereof, certified pursuant to Division 19 (commencing with Section 29000) of the Public Resources Code.
(6) Environmental constraints applied to the use of land pursuant to provisions of statutes.
(7) Hazardous waste land use restriction pursuant to Section 25226 of the Health and Safety Code.
(8) (A) A recorded conservation, trail, or scenic easement, as described in Section 815.1 of the Civil Code, that is granted in favor of a public agency, or in favor of a nonprofit corporation organized pursuant to Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that has as its primary purpose the preservation, protection, or enhancement of land in its natural, scenic, historical, agricultural, forested, or open-space condition or use.
(B) A recorded greenway easement, as described in Section 816.52 of the Civil Code, that is granted in favor of a public agency, or in favor of a nonprofit corporation organized pursuant to Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that has as its primary purpose the developing and preserving of greenways.
(9) A solar-use easement pursuant to Chapter 6.9 (commencing with Section 51190) of Part 1 of Division 1 of Title 5 of the Government Code.
(10) A contract where the following apply:
(A) The contract is with a nonprofit corporation organized pursuant to Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that has received a welfare exemption under Section 214.15 for properties intended to be sold to low-income families who participate in a special no-interest loan program.
(B) The contract restricts the use of the land for at least 30 years to owner-occupied housing available at affordable housing cost in accordance with Section 50052.5 of the Health and Safety Code.
(C) The contract includes a deed of trust on the property in favor of the nonprofit corporation to ensure compliance with the terms of the program, which has no value unless the owner fails to comply with the covenants and restrictions of the terms of the home sale.
(D) The local housing authority or an equivalent agency, or, if none exists, the city attorney or county counsel, has made a finding that the long-term deed restrictions in the contract serve a public purpose.
(E) The contract is recorded and provided to the assessor.
(11) (A) A contract where the following apply:
(i) The contract is a renewable 99-year ground lease between a community land trust and the qualified owner of an owner-occupied single-family dwelling or an owner-occupied unit in a multifamily dwelling.
(ii) The contract subjects a single-family dwelling or unit in a multifamily dwelling, and the land on which the dwelling or unit is situated that is leased to the qualified owner by a community land trust for the convenient occupation and use of that dwelling or unit, to affordability restrictions.
(iii) One of the following public agencies or officials has made a finding that the affordability restrictions in the contract serve the public interest to create and preserve the affordability of residential housing for persons and families of low or moderate income:
(I) The director of the local housing authority or equivalent agency.
(II) The county counsel.
(III) The director of a county housing department.
(IV) The city attorney.
(V) The director of a city housing department.
(iv) The contract is recorded and is provided to the assessor.
(B) For purposes of this paragraph, all of the following definitions shall apply:
(i) “Affordability restrictions” mean that all of the following conditions are met:
(I) The dwelling or unit can only be sold or resold to a qualified owner to be occupied as a principal place of residence.
(II) The sale or resale price of the dwelling or unit is determined by a formula that ensures the dwelling or unit has a purchase price that is affordable to qualified owners.
(III) There is a purchase option for the dwelling or unit in favor of a community land trust intended to preserve the dwelling or unit as affordable to qualified owners.
(IV) The dwelling or unit is to remain affordable to qualified owners by a renewable 99-year ground lease.
(ii) “Community land trust” means a nonprofit corporation organized pursuant to Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that satisfies all of the following:
(I) Has as its primary purposes the creation and maintenance of permanently affordable single-family or multifamily residences.
(II) All dwellings and units located on the land owned by the nonprofit corporation are sold to a qualified owner to be occupied as the qualified owner’s primary residence or rented to persons and families of low or moderate income.
(III) The land owned by the nonprofit corporation, on which a dwelling or unit sold to a qualified owner is situated, is leased by the nonprofit corporation to the qualified owner for the convenient occupation and use of that dwelling or unit for a renewable term of 99 years.
(iii) “Limited equity housing cooperative” has the same meaning as that term is defined in Section 817 of the Civil Code.
(iv) “Persons and families of low or moderate income” has the same meaning as that term is defined in Section 50093 of the Health and Safety Code.
(v) “Qualified owner” means persons and families of low or moderate income, including persons and families of low or moderate income that own a dwelling or unit collectively as member occupants or resident shareholders of a limited equity housing cooperative.
(b) There is a rebuttable presumption that restrictions will not be removed or substantially modified in the predictable future and that they will substantially equate the value of the land to the value attributable to the legally permissible use or uses.
(c) Grounds for rebutting the presumption may include, but are not necessarily limited to, the past history of like use restrictions in the jurisdiction in question and the similarity of sales prices for restricted and unrestricted land. The possible expiration of a restriction at a time certain shall not be conclusive evidence of the future removal or modification of the restriction unless there is no opportunity or likelihood of the continuation or renewal of the restriction, or unless a necessary party to the restriction has indicated an intent to permit its expiration at that time.
(d) In assessing land with respect to which the presumption is unrebutted, the assessor shall not consider sales of otherwise comparable land not similarly restricted as to use as indicative of value of land under restriction, unless the restrictions have a demonstrably minimal effect upon value.
(e) In assessing land under an enforceable use restriction wherein the presumption of no predictable removal or substantial modification of the restriction has been rebutted, but where the restriction nevertheless retains some future life and has some effect on present value, the assessor may consider, in addition to all other legally permissible information, representative sales of comparable lands that are not under restriction but upon which natural limitations have substantially the same effect as restrictions.
(f) For the purposes of this section the following definitions apply:
(1) “Comparable lands” are lands that are similar to the land being valued in respect to legally permissible uses and physical attributes.
(2) “Representative sales information” is information from sales of a sufficient number of comparable lands to give an accurate indication of the full cash value of the land being valued.
(g) It is hereby declared that the purpose and intent of the Legislature in enacting this section is to provide for a method of determining whether a sufficient amount of representative sales information is available for land under use restriction to ensure the accurate assessment of that land. It is also hereby declared that the further purpose and intent of the Legislature in enacting this section and Section 1630 is to avoid an assessment policy which, in the absence of special circumstances, considers uses for land that legally are not available to the owner and not contemplated by government, and that these sections are necessary to implement the public policy of encouraging and maintaining effective land use planning. This statute shall not be construed as requiring the assessment of any land at a value less than as required by Section 401 or as prohibiting the use of representative comparable sales information on land under similar restrictions when this information is available.
SEC. 2.
If the Commission on State Mandates determines that this act contains costs mandated by the state, reimbursement to local agencies and school districts for those costs shall be made pursuant to Part 7 (commencing with Section 17500) of Division 4 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
SEC. 3.
Notwithstanding Section 2229 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, no appropriation is made by this act and the state shall not reimburse any local agency for any property tax revenues lost by it pursuant to this act.
SEC. 4.
This act provides for a tax levy within the meaning of Article IV of the Constitution and shall go into immediate effect.

Summary: Existing law requires the county assessor to consider, when valuing real property for property taxation purposes, the effect of any enforceable restrictions to which the use of the land may be subjected, including, but not limited to, zoning, recorded contracts with governmental agencies, and various other restrictions imposed by governments. This bill would require the county assessor to consider, when valuing real property for property taxation purposes, a contract that is a 99-year ground lease between a community land trust, as defined, and the qualified owner, as defined, of an owner-occupied single-family dwelling or an owner-occupied unit in a multifamily dwelling and that subjects a single-family dwelling or unit in a multifamily dwelling, and the land on which the dwelling or unit is situated that is leased to the qualified owner for the convenient occupation and use of that dwelling or unit, to affordability restrictions, as defined. By changing the manner in which county assessors assess property for property taxation purposes, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program. The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement. This bill would provide that, if the Commission on State Mandates determines that the bill contains costs mandated by the state, reimbursement for those costs shall be made pursuant to these statutory provisions. Section 2229 of the Revenue and Taxation Code requires the Legislature to reimburse local agencies annually for certain property tax revenues lost as a result of any exemption or classification of property for purposes of ad valorem property taxation. This bill would provide that, notwithstanding Section 2229 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, no appropriation is made and the state shall not reimburse local agencies for property tax revenues lost by them pursuant to the bill. This bill would take effect immediately as a tax levy.

An act to amend Section 402.1 of the Revenue and Taxation Code, relating to taxation, to take effect immediately, tax levy.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
(a) It is the policy of the state to promote open access to public records. It is in the interest of the public to ensure, to the greatest extent possible, that there is open public access to court records, including civil case records.
(b) It is the policy of the state that access to public records be limited or restricted only under compelling circumstances.
(c) With the enactment of Chapter 1007 of the Statutes of 1991, the Legislature began restricting public access to civil case records in unlawful detainer proceedings. Under current law, with limited exceptions, civil case records in unlawful detainer proceedings are unavailable to the public for a period of 60 days after filing. Civil case records in unlawful detainer proceedings in which the defendant prevails within 60 days of filing are permanently unavailable to the public.
(d) The state has a housing crisis that requires revising the current restrictions on public access to civil case records in unlawful detainer proceedings. More than four decades have passed since the California Supreme Court first observed, in Green v. Superior Court (1974) 10 Cal.3d 616, 625, “a scarcity of adequate low cost housing in virtually every urban setting [in California].” Yet the shortage of affordable housing for low-income tenants has only grown. Median monthly rents in the state are now approximately 50 percent higher than the national average, but high prices have failed to spur sufficient housing construction to meet demand. As a result, households in the state in the bottom quarter of the income distribution spend an average of 67 percent of their income on housing. The recent economic and foreclosure crises have only exacerbated the challenges that low-income households face in securing affordable housing.
(e) The difficulty of securing affordable housing in competitive rental markets is also worsened by the existing law governing access to civil case records in unlawful detainer proceedings. Specifically, once unlawful detainer civil case records become public, tenant screening companies and credit reporting agencies capture and publish personal identifying information regarding tenants named as defendants in those records. This information appears in published lists, known as unlawful detainer registries, and on tenants’ credit reports. So long as it is accurate, the fact that a tenant was once sued for unlawful detainer is publicly available for up to seven years and cannot be challenged under federal or state laws governing consumer credit reporting.
(f) The names of thousands of innocent tenants whose cases are resolved only after the 60-day deadline appear on unlawful detainer registries. Many of these tenants successfully settle, secure a dismissal, or win at trial, and would have escaped negative credit reporting if only they had prevailed before the deadline. In other instances, unlawful detainer complaints are filed against tenants but never served. Because these complaints are never dismissed, the tenant’s name is publicly released after 60 days and negative credit reporting ensues. Because landlords, who are attempting to decide between numerous applicants for scarce rental housing, rely on unlawful detainer registries and on credit reports, landlords often choose not to rent to tenants who appear on these registries, even if the tenants were eventually found innocent of unlawful detainer. As a result, given the statewide housing shortage, these tenants may be shut out of rental markets for up to seven years through no fault of their own.
(g) This act strikes a just balance between ensuring open access to public records and protecting the credit and reputation of innocent tenants. This act also ensures that landlords will have access to timely and more accurate information regarding prospective tenants. This act is a response to the state’s ongoing affordable housing crisis and is necessary to prevent tenants from being inadvertently denied an opportunity to secure housing simply as a result of being named in an unlawful detainer lawsuit.
SEC. 2.
It is the intent of the Legislature to amend existing statutes regarding open access to public records by making permanently unavailable to the public civil case records in unlawful detainer proceedings in which the plaintiff does not prevail within 60 days of filing instead of unlawful detainer proceedings in which the defendant prevails within 60 days of filing.
SEC. 3.
Section 1161.2 of the Code of Civil Procedure is amended to read:
1161.2.
(a) (1) The clerk shall allow access to limited civil case records filed under this chapter, including the court file, index, and register of actions, only as follows:
(A) To a party to the action, including a party’s attorney.
(B) To a person who provides the clerk with the names of at least one plaintiff and one defendant and the address of the premises, including the apartment or unit number, if any.
(C) To a resident of the premises who provides the clerk with the name of one of the parties or the case number and shows proof of residency.
(D) To a person by order of the court, which may be granted ex parte, on a showing of good cause.
(E) To any person by order of the court if judgment is entered for the plaintiff after trial more than 60 days since the filing of the complaint. The court shall issue the order upon issuing judgment for the plaintiff.
(F) Except as provided in subparagraph (G), to any other person 60 days after the complaint has been filed if the plaintiff prevails in the action within 60 days of the filing of the complaint, in which case the clerk shall allow access to any court records in the action. If a default or default judgment is set aside more than 60 days after the complaint has been filed, this section shall apply as if the complaint had been filed on the date the default or default judgment is set aside.
(G) In the case of a complaint involving residential property based on Section 1161a as indicated in the caption of the complaint, as required in subdivision (c) of Section 1166, to any other person, if 60 days have elapsed since the complaint was filed with the court, and, as of that date, judgment against all defendants has been entered for the plaintiff, after a trial.
(2) This section shall not be construed to prohibit the court from issuing an order that bars access to the court record in an action filed under this chapter if the parties to the action so stipulate.
(b) (1) For purposes of this section, “good cause” includes, but is not limited to, both of the following:
(A) The gathering of newsworthy facts by a person described in Section 1070 of the Evidence Code.
(B) The gathering of evidence by a party to an unlawful detainer action solely for the purpose of making a request for judicial notice pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 452 of the Evidence Code.
(2) It is the intent of the Legislature that a simple procedure be established to request the ex parte order described in subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).
(c) Upon the filing of a case so restricted, the court clerk shall mail notice to each defendant named in the action. The notice shall be mailed to the address provided in the complaint. The notice shall contain a statement that an unlawful detainer complaint (eviction action) has been filed naming that party as a defendant, and that access to the court file will be delayed for 60 days except to a party, an attorney for one of the parties, or any other person who (1) provides to the clerk the names of at least one plaintiff and one defendant in the action and provides to the clerk the address, including any applicable apartment, unit, or space number, of the subject premises, or (2) provides to the clerk the name of one of the parties in the action or the case number and can establish through proper identification that he or she lives at the subject premises. The notice shall also contain a statement that access to the court index, register of actions, or other records is not permitted until 60 days after the complaint is filed, except pursuant to an order upon a showing of good cause for access. The notice shall contain on its face the following information:
(1) The name and telephone number of the county bar association.
(2) The name and telephone number of any entity that requests inclusion on the notice and demonstrates to the satisfaction of the court that it has been certified by the State Bar of California as a lawyer referral service and maintains a panel of attorneys qualified in the practice of landlord-tenant law pursuant to the minimum standards for a lawyer referral service established by the State Bar of California and Section 6155 of the Business and Professions Code.
(3) The following statement:

“The State Bar of California certifies lawyer referral services in California and publishes a list of certified lawyer referral services organized by county. To locate a lawyer referral service in your county, go to the State Bar’s Internet Web site at www.calbar.ca.gov or call 1-866-442-2529.”

(4) The name and telephone number of an office or offices funded by the federal Legal Services Corporation or qualified legal services projects that receive funds distributed pursuant to Section 6216 of the Business and Professions Code that provide legal services to low-income persons in the county in which the action is filed. The notice shall state that these telephone numbers may be called for legal advice regarding the case. The notice shall be issued between 24 and 48 hours of the filing of the complaint, excluding weekends and holidays. One copy of the notice shall be addressed to “all occupants” and mailed separately to the subject premises. The notice shall not constitute service of the summons and complaint.
(d) Notwithstanding any other law, the court shall charge an additional fee of fifteen dollars ($15) for filing a first appearance by the plaintiff. This fee shall be added to the uniform filing fee for actions filed under this chapter.
(e) This section does not apply to a case that seeks to terminate a mobilehome park tenancy if the statement of the character of the proceeding in the caption of the complaint clearly indicates that the complaint seeks termination of a mobilehome park tenancy.
(f) This section does not alter any provision of the Evidence Code.
SEC. 4.
Section 1167.1 is added to the Code of Civil Procedure, to read:
1167.1.
If proof of service of the summons has not been filed within 60 days of the complaint’s filing, the court may dismiss the action without prejudice.

Summary: Under existing law, a tenant of real property, for a term less than life, or the executor or administrator or his or her estate, is guilty of unlawful detainer when he or she continues in possession, in person or by subtenant, of the property or any part of the property, after the expiration of the term for which it is let to him or her, except as specified. Under existing law, access to limited civil case records filed in an unlawful detainer action is restricted to (1) parties to the action, (2) certain people who provide the court clerk with specified information about the parties to the action, (3) any person by order of the court on a showing of good cause, and (4) any other person 60 days after the complaint has been filed, unless the defendant prevails in the action within 60 days after the filing of the complaint, in which case access is limited to the other parties allowed access, as described above. This bill would instead provide that access to limited civil case records filed in an unlawful detainer action is restricted, for purposes of (4), as described above, (1) to any person by order of the court if judgment is entered for the plaintiff after trial more than 60 days since the filing of the complaint, and (2) to any other person 60 days after the complaint has been filed if the plaintiff prevails in the action within 60 days of the filing of the complaint. The bill would provide that if a default or default judgment is set aside more than 60 days after the complaint was filed, the court file access restrictions, as described above, shall apply as if the complaint had been filed on the date the default or the default judgment is set aside. The bill would authorize the court to bar access to court records in the action if the parties so stipulate. Existing law requires a complaint filed in an unlawful detainer proceeding to include certain information and requires a defendant to answer the complaint, as specified, within 5 days of being served with a summons and the complaint, unless the court orders otherwise for good cause shown. Existing law also requires proof of service of a summons to be filed in a civil action, including in an unlawful detainer proceeding. This bill would permit a court to dismiss an unlawful detainer proceeding without prejudice if proof of service of the summons has not been filed within 60 days of the complaint’s filing.

An act to amend Section 1161.2 of, and to add Section 1167.1 to, the Code of Civil Procedure, relating to unlawful detainer proceedings.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 396 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
396.
(a) The Legislature hereby finds that during a state of emergency or local emergency, including, but not limited to, an earthquake, flood, fire, riot, storm, drought, plant or animal infestation or disease, or other natural or manmade disaster, some merchants have taken unfair advantage of consumers by greatly increasing prices for essential consumer goods and services. While the pricing of consumer goods and services is generally best left to the marketplace under ordinary conditions, when a declared state of emergency or local emergency results in abnormal disruptions of the market, the public interest requires that excessive and unjustified increases in the prices of essential consumer goods and services be prohibited. It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting this act to protect citizens from excessive and unjustified increases in the prices charged during or shortly after a declared state of emergency or local emergency for goods and services that are vital and necessary for the health, safety, and welfare of consumers. Further, it is the intent of the Legislature that this section be liberally construed so that its beneficial purposes may be served.
(b) Upon the proclamation of a state of emergency declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or upon the declaration of a local emergency by an official, board, or other governing body vested with authority to make such a declaration in any county, city, or city and county, and for a period of 30 days following that proclamation or declaration, it is unlawful for a person, contractor, business, or other entity to sell or offer to sell any consumer food items or goods, goods or services used for emergency cleanup, emergency supplies, medical supplies, home heating oil, building materials, housing, transportation, freight, and storage services, or gasoline or other motor fuels for a price of more than 10 percent above the price charged by that person for those goods or services immediately prior to the proclamation or declaration of emergency. However, a greater price increase is not unlawful if that person can prove that the increase in price was directly attributable to additional costs imposed on it by the supplier of the goods, or directly attributable to additional costs for labor or materials used to provide the services, provided that in those situations where the increase in price is attributable to additional costs imposed by the seller’s supplier or additional costs of providing the good or service during the state of emergency or local emergency, the price represents no more than 10 percent above the total of the cost to the seller plus the markup customarily applied by the seller for that good or service in the usual course of business immediately prior to the onset of the state of emergency or local emergency.
(c) Upon the proclamation of a state of emergency declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or upon the declaration of a local emergency by an official, board, or other governing body vested with authority to make such a declaration in any county, city, or city and county, and for a period of 180 days following that proclamation or declaration, it is unlawful for a contractor to sell or offer to sell any repair or reconstruction services or any services used in emergency cleanup for a price of more than 10 percent above the price charged by that person for those services immediately prior to the proclamation or declaration of emergency. However, a greater price increase is not unlawful if that person can prove that the increase in price was directly attributable to additional costs imposed on it by the supplier of the goods, or directly attributable to additional costs for labor or materials used to provide the services, provided that in those situations where the increase in price is attributable to the additional costs imposed by the contractor’s supplier or additional costs of providing the service during the state of emergency or local emergency, the price represents no more than 10 percent above the total of the cost to the contractor plus the markup customarily applied by the contractor for that good or service in the usual course of business immediately prior to the onset of the state of emergency or local emergency.
(d) Upon the proclamation of a state of emergency declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or upon the declaration of a local emergency by an official, board, or other governing body vested with authority to make such a declaration in any county, city, or city and county, and for a period of 30 days following that proclamation or declaration, it is unlawful for an owner or operator of a hotel or motel to increase the hotel or motel’s regular rates, as advertised immediately prior to the proclamation or declaration of emergency, by more than 10 percent. However, a greater price increase is not unlawful if the owner or operator can prove that the increase in price is directly attributable to additional costs imposed on it for goods or labor used in its business, to seasonal adjustments in rates that are regularly scheduled, or to previously contracted rates.
(e) The provisions of this section may be extended for additional 30-day periods, as needed, by a local legislative body, local official, the Governor, or the California Legislature, if deemed necessary to protect the lives, property, or welfare of the citizens.
(f) A violation of this section is a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment in a county jail for a period not exceeding one year, or by a fine of not more than ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(g) A violation of this section shall constitute an unlawful business practice and an act of unfair competition within the meaning of Section 17200 of the Business and Professions Code. The remedies and penalties provided by this section are cumulative to each other, the remedies under Section 17200 of the Business and Professions Code, and the remedies or penalties available under all other laws of this state.
(h) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the following meanings:
(1) “State of emergency” means a natural or manmade emergency resulting from an earthquake, flood, fire, riot, storm, drought, plant or animal infestation or disease, or other natural or manmade disaster for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor of California.
(2) “Local emergency” means a natural or manmade emergency resulting from an earthquake, flood, fire, riot, storm, drought, plant or animal infestation or disease, or other natural or manmade disaster for which a local emergency has been declared by an official, board, or other governing body vested with authority to make such a declaration in any county, city, or city and county in California.
(3) “Consumer food item” means any article that is used or intended for use for food, drink, confection, or condiment by a person or animal.
(4) “Repair or reconstruction services” means services performed by any person who is required to be licensed under the Contractors’ State License Law (Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 7000) of Division 3 of the Business and Professions Code), for repairs to residential or commercial property of any type that is damaged as a result of a disaster.
(5) “Emergency supplies” includes, but is not limited to, water, flashlights, radios, batteries, candles, blankets, soaps, diapers, temporary shelters, tape, toiletries, plywood, nails, and hammers.
(6) “Medical supplies” includes, but is not limited to, prescription and nonprescription medications, bandages, gauze, isopropyl alcohol, and antibacterial products.
(7) “Building materials” means lumber, construction tools, windows, and anything else used in the building or rebuilding of property.
(8) “Gasoline” means any fuel used to power any motor vehicle or power tool.
(9) “Transportation, freight, and storage services” means any service that is performed by any company that contracts to move, store, or transport personal or business property or that rents equipment for those purposes, including towing services.
(10) “Housing” means any rental housing with an initial lease term of no longer than one year.
(11) “Goods” has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 1689.5 of the Civil Code.
(i) Nothing in this section shall preempt any local ordinance prohibiting the same or similar conduct or imposing a more severe penalty for the same conduct prohibited by this section.
(j) A business offering an item for sale at a reduced price immediately prior to the proclamation or declaration of the emergency may use the price at which it usually sells the item to calculate the price pursuant to subdivision (b) or (c).
SEC. 2.
No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution.

Summary: Under existing law, upon the proclamation of a state of emergency resulting from an earthquake, flood, fire, riot, storm, or natural or manmade disaster declared by the President of the United States or the Governor, or upon the declaration of a local emergency resulting from an earthquake, flood, fire, riot, storm, or natural or manmade disaster by the executive officer of any county, city, or city and county, and for a period of 30 days following that declaration, it is a misdemeanor with specified penalties for a person, contractor, business, or other entity to sell or offer to sell certain goods and services for a price that exceeds by 10 the price charged by that person immediately prior to the proclamation of emergency, except as specified. This bill would revise the definitions of a state of emergency and a local emergency to mean a natural or manmade emergency resulting from an earthquake, flood, fire, riot, storm, drought, plant or animal infestation or disease, or other natural or manmade disaster for which a state of emergency has been declared by the President of the United States or the Governor of California or for which a local emergency has been declared by an official, board, or other governing body vested with authority to make such a declaration in any city, county, or city and county in California, respectively. The bill would include towing services in the provisions described above. The bill would also specify that housing means any rental housing with an initial lease term of no longer than one year for purposes of these provisions. The bill would make other clarifying and conforming changes, including, among others, a specification that these provisions apply to both a state of emergency and a local emergency, and would make certain additional findings by the Legislature. By expanding the scope of an existing crime, this bill would create a state-mandated local program. The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement. This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.

An act to amend Section 396 of the Penal Code, relating to crimes.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
The Legislature finds and declares all of the following:
(a) Homeless beneficiaries incur disproportionate Medi-Cal costs, particularly people experiencing chronic homelessness and people who cycle between homelessness, emergency departments, inpatient care, and nursing home stays. Supportive housing, which is affordable housing with intensive services, allows people experiencing significant barriers to housing stability to improve their health and decrease their Medicaid costs. National studies comparing formerly homeless Medicaid beneficiaries living in supportive housing with homeless beneficiaries receiving usual care demonstrate Medicaid cost savings of almost $9,000 per year after the costs of services.
(b) In most communities in California, a lack of housing affordable to people experiencing homelessness is one of the greatest barriers to exiting homelessness. Housing resources would equip Whole Person Care counties choosing to target homeless people with the resources to achieve the goals of the Whole Person Care Waiver provisions, during the course of the pilot and after the pilot ends. “Whole Person Care pilot” has the meaning as described in the Medi-Cal 2020 Waiver Special Terms and Conditions (STCs), Sections 110-126, as approved by the federal Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services on December 30, 2015, or in any sub means the Department of Housing and Community Development.
(e) “Homeless” has the same meaning as in Section 578.3 of Title 24 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as that section read on January 1, 2017.
(f) “Interim housing” means a safe place for a participant to live temporarily while the participant is waiting to move into a permanent apartment affordable to the participant with rental assistance, and where the participant is not required to pay more than 30 percent of his or her income toward the cost of the interim housing. “Interim housing” may include recuperative or respite care and shall not be funded for longer than a period of nine months.
(g) “Long-term rental assistance” means a rental subsidy provided to a housing provider, including a landlord renting in the private market or a developer leasing affordable housing, to assist a tenant to pay the difference between 30 percent of the tenant’s income and fair market rent or reasonable market rent as determined by HCD.
(h) “Permanent housing” means a housing unit where the landlord does not limit length of stay in the housing unit, the landlord does not restrict the movements of the tenant, and the tenant has a lease and is subject to the rights and responsibilities of tenancy, pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 1940) of Title 5 of Part 4 of Division 3 of the Civil Code.
(i) “Program” means the Housing for a Healthy California Program created by this part.
(j) “Supportive housing” has the same meaning as in Section 50675.14.
53591.
HCD shall do all of the following:
(a) On or before October 1, 2017, establish the Housing for a Healthy California Program.
(b) On or before October 1, 2017, draft guidelines for stakeholder comment to fund competitive grants to pay for interim and long-term rental assistance under the program. The guidelines shall detail competitive scoring criteria that includes, but is not limited to, scoring that awards points based upon all of the following:
(1) Need, which includes consideration of the number of individuals experiencing homelessness and the impact of housing costs in the applicant’s geographic area.
(2) Ability of the applicant to administer a program offering interim and long-term rental assistance to people experiencing homelessness.
(3) The applicant’s documented partnerships with affordable and supportive housing providers in the applicant’s geographic area.
(4) A comprehensive plan to connect interim housing, long-term rental assistance, and project-based supportive housing resources.
(5) Coordination with (A) community-based housing and homeless service providers, (B) behavioral health providers, and (C), safety net providers, including community health centers.
(c) On or before April 1, 2018, and every year thereafter, subject to appropriation by the Legislature, award grants on a competitive basis to eligible grant applicants. If appropriations are made available in future years, applicants shall compete for each round of five-year grants.
(d) Midyear and annually, collect data from the program grantees.
(e) No later than April 1, 2018, contract with an independent evaluator or work with an evaluator who is contracted with DHCS to analyze data collected pursuant to Section 53573 to determine changes in health care costs associated with services provided under the program. HCD shall provide, on a regular basis as needed, collected data to the evaluator.
(f) (1) On or before October 1, 2019, for grants awarded in 2018, and in subsequent years thereafter in which the program is allocated additional funds, report data collected to the Assembly Committee on Budget, the Senate Committee on Budget and Fiscal Review, the Assembly and Senate committees on health, the Assembly Committee on Housing and Community Development, and the Senate Committee on Transportation and Housing.
(2) A report to be submitted pursuant to paragraph (1) shall be submitted in compliance with Section 9795 of the Government Code.
(g) HCD is encouraged to consult with DHCS where appropriate to carry out the intent of this section.
53592.
An applicant shall be eligible for a program grant if the applicant meets the requirements of this section. Eligibility does not create an entitlement to grant funds and is subject to availability of funds. The applicant shall meet all of the following requirements:
(a) Identify a source of funding for Housing Transition Services and Tenancy Sustaining Services, as defined in the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services’ Informational Bulletin regarding Housing-Related Activities and Services for People with Disabilities, issued June 26, 2015. Funding for these services may include, but are not limited to, one or more of the following:
(1) County general funds.
(2) Whole Person Care pilot program funds.
(3) The Health Home Program.
(4) Other county-controlled funding to provide these services to eligible participants.
(b) Agree to contribute funding for interim and long-term rental assistance through an identified source.
(c) Has designated a process for administering grant funds through agencies administering housing programs.
(d) Agree to collect and report data, as described in Section 53593, to HCD.
53593.
(a) HCD shall coordinate with DHCS to match program participant data, consistent with state and federal privacy law, to Medi-Cal data to identify outcomes among participants as well as changes in health care costs associated with housing and services provided under the program to the extent that information is available, up to 12 months prior to each participant’s move into permanent housing, as well as changes in costs after each participant’s move into permanent housing.
(b) An applicant awarded grant funds shall, at annual and midyear intervals, report all of the following data to HCD:
(1) Data specified by HCD necessary to measure the costs and outcomes of the program.
(2) The number of participants and the type of interventions offered through grant funds.
(3) The number of participants living in supportive housing or other permanent housing.
53594.
An applicant shall use grants awarded pursuant to this part for one or more of the following, which may be administered through a housing pool:
(a) Long-term rental assistance for periods of up to five years.
(b) A capitalized operating reserve for up to 15 years to pay for operating costs of an apartment or apartments within a development receiving public funding to provide supportive housing to people experiencing homelessness.
(c) Interim housing.
(d) A county’s administrative costs for up to 3 percent of the total grant awarded.
53595.
A county resident is eligible to receive assistance pursuant to a grant awarded under the program if he or she meets all of the following requirements:
(a) Is homeless upon initial eligibility.
(b) Is a Medi-Cal beneficiary.
(c) Is eligible for Supplemental Security Income.
(d) Is eligible to receive services under a program providing services promoting housing stability, including, but not limited to, the following:
(1) The Whole Person Care pilot program.
(2) Health Home Program.
(3) A locally controlled services program funding or providing services in supportive housing.
(e) Is likely to improve his or her health conditions with supportive housing.
53596.
The program shall be funded upon appropriation by the Legislature. The Legislature shall consider the impact that housing and supportive services have had in changing utilization and health care costs, as identified in the evaluation described in Section 53591, of moving eligible participants into supportive housing.
53597.
HCD shall reimburse DHCS for the costs of collaborating in matching and providing relevant data. HCD shall use no more than 5 percent of the funds appropriated for the program for purposes of administering the program.
53598.
(a) For purposes of implementing this part, HCD may enter into exclusive or nonexclusive contracts on a bid or negotiated basis. Contracts entered into or amended pursuant to this subdivision shall be exempt from Chapter 6 (commencing with Section 14825) of Part 5.5 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, Section 19130 of the Government Code, and Part 2 (commencing with Section 10100) of Division 2 of the Public Contract Code and shall be exempt from the review or approval of any division of the Department of General Services.
(b) Any guidelines that are adopted, amended, or repealed to implement this chapter shall not be subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
53599.
Implementation of this part shall be contingent on an appropriation provided for this purpose in the annual Budget Act or other measure.

Summary: Existing law establishes various housing programs directed by the Department of Housing and Community Development (HCD), including special housing programs to provide housing assistance for persons with developmental and physical disabilities and persons with mental health disorders. Existing law provides for the Medi-Cal program, which is administered by the State Department of Health Care Services (DHCS), under which qualified low-income individuals receive health care services. The Medi-Cal program is, in part, governed and funded by federal Medicaid program provisions. This bill would require HCD to, on or before October 1, 2017, establish the Housing for a Healthy California Program and on or before April 1, 2018, and every year thereafter, subject to appropriation by the Legislature, award grants on a competitive basis to eligible grant applicants based on guidelines that HCD would draft, as prescribed, and other requirements. The bill would provide that an applicant is eligible for a grant under the program if the applicant meets specified requirements, including that the applicant identify a source of funding, as specified, agree to contribute funding for interim and long-term rental assistance, and agree to collect and report data, as specified. The bill would require an applicant awarded a grant to use the funds for specified purposes, including long-term rental assistance and interim housing. The bill would provide that a county resident is eligible to receive assistance pursuant to a grant awarded under the program if he or she meets specified requirements, including that the person is homeless, is a Medi-Cal beneficiary, is eligible for Supplemental Security Income, is eligible to receive certain services, and is likely to improve his or her health with supportive services. The bill would provide that the program shall be funded upon appropriation by the Legislature. The bill would also authorize HCD, for purposes of implementing these provisions, to enter into exclusive or nonexclusive contracts on a bid or negotiated basis, exempt from specified small business procurement, personal service, and public contracting provisions, and exempt from the review or approval of any division of the Department of General Services. The bill would exempt the program guidelines created by the department from requirements prescribed for administrative regulations. The bill would require HCD to analyze data collected pursuant to the program, as specified, and by October 1, 2019, and subsequently as the program may be funded, to report program data to certain legislative committees, as specified. The bill would condition implementation of these provisions upon an appropriation provided for this purpose.

An act to add Part 14.2 (commencing with Section 53590) to Division 31 of the Health and Safety Code, relating to housing.