The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 52.5 of the Civil Code is amended to read:
52.5.
(a) A victim of human trafficking, as defined in Section 236.1 of the Penal Code, may bring a civil action for actual damages, compensatory damages, punitive damages, injunctive relief, any combination of those, or any other appropriate relief. A prevailing plaintiff may also be awarded attorney’s fees and costs.
(b) In addition to the remedies specified in this section, in an action under subdivision (a), the plaintiff may be awarded up to three times his or her actual damages or ten thousand dollars ($10,000), whichever is greater. In addition, punitive damages may also be awarded upon proof of the defendant’s malice, oppression, fraud, or duress in committing the act of human trafficking.
(c) An action brought pursuant to this section shall be commenced within seven years of the date on which the trafficking victim was freed from the trafficking situation or, if the victim was a minor when the act of human trafficking against the victim occurred, within 10 years after the date the plaintiff attains the age of majority.
(d) If a person entitled to sue is under a disability at the time the cause of action accrues so that it is impossible or impracticable for him or her to bring an action, the time of the disability is not part of the time limited for the commencement of the action. Disability will toll the running of the statute of limitations for this action.
(1) Disability includes being a minor, lacking legal capacity to make decisions, imprisonment, or other incapacity or incompetence.
(2) The statute of limitations shall not run against a plaintiff who is a minor or who lacks the legal competence to make decisions simply because a guardian ad litem has been appointed. A guardian ad litem’s failure to bring a plaintiff’s action within the applicable limitation period will not prejudice the plaintiff’s right to do so after his or her disability ceases.
(3) A defendant is estopped from asserting a defense of the statute of limitations when the expiration of the statute is due to conduct by the defendant inducing the plaintiff to delay the filing of the action, or due to threats made by the defendant causing duress upon the plaintiff.
(4) The suspension of the statute of limitations due to disability, lack of knowledge, or estoppel applies to all other related claims arising out of the trafficking situation.
(5) The running of the statute of limitations is postponed during the pendency of criminal proceedings against the victim.
(e) The running of the statute of limitations may be suspended if a person entitled to sue could not have reasonably discovered the cause of action due to circumstances resulting from the trafficking situation, such as psychological trauma, cultural and linguistic isolation, and the inability to access services.
(f) A prevailing plaintiff may also be awarded reasonable attorney’s fees and litigation costs including, but not limited to, expert witness fees and expenses as part of the costs.
(g) Restitution paid by the defendant to the victim shall be credited against a judgment, award, or settlement obtained pursuant to an action under this section. A judgment, award, or settlement obtained pursuant to an action under this section shall be subject to Section 13963 of the Government Code.
(h) A civil action filed under this section shall be stayed during the pendency of any criminal action arising out of the same occurrence in which the claimant is the victim. As used in this section, a “criminal action” includes investigation and prosecution, and is pending until a final adjudication in the trial court or dismissal.
SEC. 2.
Section 354.8 is added to the Code of Civil Procedure, to read:
354.8.
(a) Notwithstanding any other law, including, but not limited to Section 335.1, the following actions shall be commenced within 10 years:
(1) An action for assault, battery, or both, where the conduct constituting the assault or battery would also constitute any of the following:
(A) An act of torture, as described in Section 206 of the Penal Code.
(B) An act of genocide, as described in Section 1091(a) of Title 18 of the United States Code.
(C) A war crime, as defined in Section 2441 of Title 18 of the United States Code.
(D) An attempted extrajudicial killing, as defined in Section 3(a) of Public Law 102-256.
(E) (i) Crimes against humanity.
(ii) For purposes of this paragraph, “crimes against humanity” means any of the following acts as part of a widespread or systematic attack directed against a civil population, with knowledge of the attack:
(I) Murder.
(II) Extermination.
(III) Enslavement.
(IV) Forcible transfer of population.
(V) Arbitrary detention.
(VI) Rape, sexual slavery, enforced prostitution, forced pregnancy, enforced sterilization, or any other form of sexual violence of comparable gravity.
(VII) Persecution on political, race, national, ethnic, cultural, religious, or gender grounds.
(VIII) Enforced disappearance of persons.
(IX) Other inhuman acts of similar character intentionally causing great suffering, serious bodily injury, or serious mental injury.
(2) An action for wrongful death, where the death arises out of conduct constituting any of the acts described in paragraph (1), or where the death would constitute an extrajudicial killing, as defined in Section 3(a) of Public Law 102-256.
(3) An action for the taking of property in violation of international law, in which either of the following apply:
(A) That property, or any property exchanged for such property, is present in the United States in connection with a commercial activity carried on in the United States by a foreign state.
(B) That property, or any property exchanged for such property, is owned or operated by an agency or instrumentality of a foreign state and that agency or instrumentality is engaged in a commercial activity in the United States.
(4) An action seeking benefits under an insurance policy where the insurance claim arises out of any of the conduct described in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive.
(b) An action brought under this section shall not be dismissed for failure to comply with any previously applicable statute of limitations.
(c) Section 361 shall not apply to an action brought pursuant to this section if all or part of the unlawful act or acts out of which the action arises occurred in this state.
(d) A prevailing plaintiff may be awarded reasonable attorney’s fees and litigation costs including, but not limited to, expert witness fees and expenses as part of the costs.
(e) This section shall apply to all actions commenced concerning an act described in paragraphs (1) to (4), inclusive, of subdivision (a), that occurs on or after January 1, 2016.
(f) The provisions of this section are severable. If any provision of this section or its application is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application.

Summary: Existing law requires a civil action brought by a victim of human trafficking, as defined, to be commenced within 5 years of the date on which the trafficking victim was freed from the trafficking situation or, if the victim was a minor when the act of human trafficking against the victim occurred, within 8 years after the date the plaintiff attains the age of majority. This bill would require a civil action for human trafficking, as defined, to be commenced within 7 years of the date on which the trafficking victim was freed from the trafficking situation or, if the victim was a minor when the act of human trafficking against the victim occurred, within 10 years after the date the plaintiff attains the age of majority. Existing law requires a civil action for assault, battery, or injury to, or for the death of, an individual caused by the wrongful act or neglect of another to be commenced with 2 years. This bill would require (1) a civil action for assault, battery, or wrongful death, when the conduct would also constitute torture, genocide, a war crime, an attempted extrajudicial killing, or a crime against humanity, as defined, (2) a civil action for the taking of property in violation of international law, as defined, or (3) a civil action seeking benefits under an insurance policy, where the insurance claim arises out of any of the conduct specified above, to be commenced within 10 years. The bill would authorize a prevailing plaintiff to recover reasonable attorney’s fees and litigation costs. The bill would provide that the provisions are severable, as specified.

An act to amend Section 52.5 of the Civil Code, and to add Section 354.8 to the Code of Civil Procedure, relating to civil actions.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 11362.777 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:
11362.777.
(a) The Department of Food and Agriculture shall establish a Medical Cannabis Cultivation Program to be administered by the secretary and, except as specified in subdivision (c), shall administer this section as it pertains to the cultivation of medical marijuana. For purposes of this section and Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 19300) of Division 8 of the Business and Professions Code, medical cannabis is an agricultural product.
(b) (1) A person or entity shall not cultivate medical marijuana without first obtaining both of the following:
(A) A license, permit, or other entitlement, specifically permitting cultivation pursuant to these provisions, from the city, county, or city and county in which the cultivation will occur.
(B) A state license issued by the department pursuant to this section.
(2) A person or entity shall not submit an application for a state license issued by the department pursuant to this section unless that person or entity has received a license, permit, or other entitlement, specifically permitting cultivation pursuant to these provisions, from the city, county, or city and county in which the cultivation will occur.
(3) A person or entity shall not submit an application for a state pursuant to this section shall notify the department in a manner prescribed by the secretary.
(3) A city, county, or city and county’s locally issued conditional permit requirements must be at least as stringent as the department’s state licensing requirements.
(d) (1) The secretary may prescribe, adopt, and enforce regulations relating to the implementation, administration, and enforcement of this part, including, but not limited to, applicant requirements, collections, reporting, refunds, and appeals.
(2) The secretary may prescribe, adopt, and enforce any emergency regulations as necessary to implement this part. Any emergency regulation prescribed, adopted, or enforced pursuant to this section shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, and, for purposes of that chapter, including Section 11349.6 of the Government Code, the adoption of the regulation is an emergency and shall be considered by the Office of Administrative Law as necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health and safety, and general welfare.
(3) The secretary may enter into a cooperative agreement with a county agricultural commissioner to carry out the provisions of this chapter, including, but not limited to, administration, investigations, inspections, licensing and assistance pertaining to the cultivation of medical marijuana. Compensation under the cooperative agreement shall be paid from assessments and fees collected and deposited pursuant to this chapter and shall provide reimbursement to the county agricultural commissioner for associated costs.
(e) (1) The department, in consultation with, but not limited to, the Bureau of Medical Marijuana Regulation, the State Water Resources Control Board, and the Department of Fish and Wildlife, shall implement a unique identification program for medical marijuana. In implementing the program, the department shall consider issues, including, but not limited to, water use and environmental impacts. In implementing the program, the department shall ensure that:
(A) Individual and cumulative effects of water diversion and discharge associated with cultivation do not affect the instream flows needed for fish spawning, migration, and rearing, and the flows needed to maintain natural flow variability.
(B) Cultivation will not negatively impact springs, riparian wetlands, and aquatic habitats.
(2) The department shall establish a program for the identification of permitted medical marijuana plants at a cultivation site during the cultivation period. The unique identifier shall be attached at the base of each plant. A unique identifier, such as, but not limited to, a zip tie, shall be issued for each medical marijuana plant.
(A) Unique identifiers will only be issued to those persons appropriately licensed by this section.
(B) Information associated with the assigned unique identifier and licensee shall be included in the trace and track program specified in Section 19335 of the Business and Professions Code.
(C) The department may charge a fee to cover the reasonable costs of issuing the unique identifier and monitoring, tracking, and inspecting each medical marijuana plant.
(D) The department may promulgate regulations to implement this section.
(3) The department shall take adequate steps to establish protections against fraudulent unique identifiers and limit illegal diversion of unique identifiers to unlicensed persons.
(f) (1) A city, county, or city and county that issues or denies licenses to cultivate medical marijuana pursuant to this section shall notify the department in a manner prescribed by the secretary.
(2) Unique identifiers and associated identifying information administered by a city or county shall adhere to the requirements set by the department and be the equivalent to those administered by the department.
(g) This section does not apply to a qualified patient cultivating marijuana pursuant to Section 11362.5 if the area he or she uses to cultivate marijuana does not exceed 100 square feet and he or she cultivates marijuana for his or her personal medical use and does not sell, distribute, donate, or provide marijuana to any other person or entity. This section does not apply to a primary caregiver cultivating marijuana pursuant to Section 11362.5 if the area he or she uses to cultivate marijuana does not exceed 500 square feet and he or she cultivates marijuana exclusively for the personal medical use of no more than five specified qualified patients for whom he or she is the primary caregiver within the meaning of Section 11362.7 and does not receive remuneration for these activities, except for compensation provided in full compliance with subdivision (c) of Section 11362.765. For purposes of this section, the area used to cultivate marijuana shall be measured by the aggregate area of vegetative growth of live marijuana plants on the premises. Exemption from the requirements of this section does not limit or prevent a city, county, or city and county from exercising its police authority under Section 7 of Article XI of the California Constitution.
SEC. 2.
This act is an urgency statute necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health, or safety within the meaning of Article IV of the Constitution and shall go into immediate effect. The facts constituting the necessity are:
To allow local governments to protect the health of their citizens by regulating marijuana at the earliest possible date, it is necessary that this act take effect immediately.

Summary: Existing law, the Compassionate Use Act of 1996, an initiative measure enacted by the approval of Proposition 215 at the November 5, 1996, statewide general election, authorizes the use of marijuana for medical purposes. Existing law, enacted by the Legislature, provides for the licensing and regulation by both state and local entities of medical marijuana and its cultivation. Existing law provides that if a city, county, or city and county does not have land use regulations or ordinances regulating or prohibiting the cultivation of marijuana, commencing March 1, 2016, the Department of Food and Agriculture is the sole licensing authority for medical marijuana cultivation applicants in that city, county, or city and county. This bill would delete the provision that grants the department the sole licensing authority under those circumstances. Existing law exempts certain persons cultivating medical marijuana from the requirement to obtain both a state license from the Department of Food and Agriculture and a license, permit, or other entitlement allowing cultivation from the city, county, or city and county in which the cultivation will occur. Existing law authorizes a city, county, or city and county to regulate or ban the cultivation, storage, manufacture, transport, provision, or other activity by a person otherwise exempt from state regulation, or to enforce that regulation or ban. This bill would instead provide that an exemption from these licensure requirements does not limit or prevent a city, county, or city and county from exercising its police power authority under a specified provision of the California Constitution. This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as an urgency statute.

An act to amend Section 11362.777 of the Health and Safety Code, relating to medical marijuana, and declaring the urgency thereof, to take effect immediately.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 5374 of the Public Utilities Code is amended to read:
5374.
(a) (1) Before a permit or certificate is issued or renewed, the commission shall require the applicant to establish reasonable fitness and financial responsibility to initiate and conduct or continue to conduct the proposed or existing transportation services. The commission shall not issue or renew a permit or certificate pursuant to this chapter unless the applicant meets all of the following requirements:
(A) It is financially and organizationally capable of conducting an operation that complies with the rules and regulations of the Department of the California Highway Patrol governing highway safety.
(B) It is committed to observing the hours of service regulations of state and, where applicable, federal law, for all persons, whether employees or subcarriers, operating vehicles in transportation for compensation under the certificate.
(C) It has a preventive maintenance program in effect for its vehicles used in transportation for compensation that conforms to regulations of the Department of the California Highway Patrol in Title 13 of the California Code of Regulations.
(D) It participates in the pull-notice system pursuant to Section 1808.1 of the Vehicle Code to regularly check the driving records of all persons, whether employees or subcarriers, operating vehicles used in transportation for compensation.
(E) It has a safety education and training program in effect for all employees or subcarriers operating vehicles used in transportation for compensation.
(F) It will maintain its vehicles used in transportation for compensation in a safe operating condition and in compliance with the Vehicle Code and with regulations contained in Title 13 of the California Code of Regulations relative to motor vehicle safety.
(G) It has filed with the commission the certificate of workers’ compensation insurance coverage or statement required by Section 5378.1.
(H) It has provided the commission an address of an office or terminal where documents supporting the factual matters specified in the showing required by this subdivision may be inspected by the commission and the Department of the California Highway Patrol.
(I) It provides for a mandatory controlled substance and alcohol testing certification program as adopted by the commission pursuant to Section 1032.1.
(J) Subparagraphs (C), (F), and (H) do not apply to a charter-party carrier of passengers engaged in the provision of a hired driver service when a rented motor vehicle is being operated by the hired driver.
(2) With respect to subparagraphs (B) and (F) of paragraph (1), the commission may base a finding on a certification by the commission that an applicant has filed, with the commission, a sworn declaration of ability to comply and intent to comply.
(3) The commission may require, as a precondition to the issuance of a permit or certificate, the procurement of a performance bond sufficient to facilitate the collection of fines, penalties, and restitution related to enforcement actions that can be taken against the applicant.
(b) In addition to the requirements in subdivision (a), charter-party carriers shall meet all other state and, where applicable, federal regulations as prescribed.
(c) The commission may delegate to its executive director or that executive director’s designee the authority to issue, renew, or authorize the transfer of, charter-party carrier permits or certificates and to make the findings specified in subdivision (a) that are necessary to that delegated authority.
SEC. 2.
Section 5444 is added to the Public Utilities Code, to read:
5444.
(a) A transportation network company shall do all of the following:
(1) Participate in a pull-notice system pursuant to Section 1808.1 of the Vehicle Code to regularly check the driving records of all participating drivers.
(2) Provide for a mandatory controlled substance and alcohol testing certification program as adopted by the commission pursuant to Section 1032.1.
(3) Register any vehicle used in the transportation of passengers for compensation with the commission and display on the vehicle
a suitable decal with
an identifying symbol
issued
prescribed
by the
commission.
commission pursuant to Section 5385.
(b) Drivers hired or initially retained by a transportation network company on or after January 1, 2016, shall be subject to mandatory drug and alcohol testing prior to employment or retention. Drivers hired or initially retained before January 1, 2016, shall complete a drug and alcohol test before January 1, 2017.
SEC. 3.
Section 1808.1 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:
1808.1.
(a) The prospective employer of a driver who drives a vehicle specified in subdivision (k) shall obtain a report showing the driver’s current public record as recorded by the department. For purposes of this subdivision, a report is current if it was issued less than 30 days prior to the date the employer employs the driver. The report shall be reviewed, signed, and dated by the employer and maintained at the employer’s place of business until receipt of the pull-notice system report pursuant to subdivisions (b) and (c). These reports shall be presented upon request to an authorized representative of the Department of the California Highway Patrol during regular business hours.
(b) The employer of a driver who drives a vehicle specified in subdivision (k) shall participate in a pull-notice system, which is a process for the purpose of providing the employer with a report showing the driver’s current public record as recorded by the department, and any subsequent convictions, failures to appear, accidents, driver’s license suspensions, driver’s license revocations, or any other actions taken against the driving privilege or certificate, added to the driver’s record while the employer’s notification request remains valid and uncanceled. As used in this section, participation in the pull-notice system means obtaining a requester code and enrolling all employed drivers who drive a vehicle specified in subdivision (k) under that requester code.
(c) The employer of a driver of a vehicle specified in subdivision (k) shall, additionally, obtain a periodic report from the department at least every 12 months. The employer shall verify that each employee’s driver’s license has not been suspended or revoked, the employee’s traffic violation point count, and whether the employee has been convicted of a violation of Section 23152 or 23153. The report shall be signed and dated by the employer and maintained at the employer’s principal place of business. The report shall be presented upon demand to an authorized representative of the Department of the California Highway Patrol during regular business hours.
(d) Upon the termination of a driver’s employment, the employer shall notify the department to discontinue the driver’s enrollment in the pull-notice system.
(e) For the purposes of the pull-notice system and periodic report process required by subdivisions (b) and (c), an owner, other than an owner-operator as defined in Section 34624, and an employer who drives a vehicle described in subdivision (k) shall be enrolled as if he or she were an employee. A family member and a volunteer driver who drives a vehicle described in subdivision (k) shall also be enrolled as if he or she were an employee.
(f) An employer who, after receiving a driving record pursuant to this section, employs or continues to employ as a driver a person against whom a disqualifying action has been taken regarding his or her driving privilege or required driver’s certificate, is guilty of a public offense, and upon conviction thereof, shall be punished by confinement in a county jail for not more than six months, by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that confinement and fine.
(g) As part of its inspection of bus maintenance facilities and terminals required at least once every 13 months pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 34501, the Department of the California Highway Patrol shall determine whether each transit operator, as defined in Section 99210 of the Public Utilities Code, is then in compliance with this section and Section 12804.6, and shall certify each operator found to be in compliance. Funds shall not be allocated pursuant to Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 99200) of Part 11 of Division 10 of the Public Utilities Code to a transit operator that the Department of the California Highway Patrol has not certified pursuant to this section.
(h) (1) A request to participate in the pull-notice system established by this section shall be accompanied by a fee determined by the department to be sufficient to defray the entire actual cost to the department for the notification service. For the receipt of subsequent reports, the employer shall also be charged a fee established by the department pursuant to Section 1811. An employer who qualifies pursuant to Section 1812 shall be exempt from any fee required pursuant to this section. Failure to pay the fee shall result in automatic cancellation of the employer’s participation in the notification services.
(2) A regularly organized fire department, having official recognition of the city, county, city and county, or district in which the department is located, shall participate in the pull-notice program and shall not be subject to the fee established pursuant to this subdivision.
(3) The Board of Pilot Commissioners for Monterey Bay and the Bays of San Francisco, San Pablo, and Suisun, and its port agent shall participate in the pull-notice system established by this section, subject to Section 1178.5 of the Harbors and Navigation Code, and shall not be subject to the fees established pursuant to this subdivision.
(i) The department, as soon as feasible, may establish an automatic procedure to provide the periodic reports to an employer by mail or via an electronic delivery method, as required by subdivision (c), on a regular basis without the need for individual requests.
(j) (1) The employer of a driver who is employed as a casual driver is not required to enter that driver’s name in the pull-notice system, as otherwise required by subdivision (a). However, the employer of a casual driver shall be in possession of a report of the driver’s current public record as recorded by the department, prior to allowing a casual driver to drive a vehicle specified in subdivision (k). A report is current if it was issued less than six months prior to the date the employer employs the driver.
(2) For the purposes of this subdivision, a driver is employed as a casual driver when the employer has employed the driver less than 30 days during the preceding six months. “Casual driver” does not include a driver who operates a vehicle that requires a passenger transportation endorsement.
(k) This section applies to a vehicle for the operation of which the driver is required to have a class A or class B driver’s license, a class C license with a hazardous materials endorsement, a class C license issued pursuant to Section 12814.7, or a certificate issued pursuant to Section 12517, 12519, 12520, 12523, 12523.5, or 12527, or a passenger vehicle having a seating capacity of not more than 10 persons, including the driver, operated for compensation by a charter-party carrier of passengers, transportation network company, or passenger stage corporation pursuant to a certificate of public convenience and necessity or a permit issued by the Public Utilities Commission.
(l) (1) For purposes of this section, the term “employer” or “prospective employer” includes a transportation network company whose permit or certificate, including any renewal of that permit or certificate, is subject to the requirements of Article 7 (commencing with Section 5430) of Chapter 8 of Division 2 of the Public Utilities Code.
(2) This section shall not be construed to change the definition of “employer,” “employee,” or “independent contractor” for any other purpose.
(m) A motor carrier who contracts with a person to drive a vehicle described in subdivision (k) that is owned by, or leased to, that motor carrier, shall be subject to subdivisions (a), (b), (c), (d), (f), (j), (k), and (l) and the employer obligations in those subdivisions.
(n) Reports issued pursuant to this section, but only those for a driver of a taxicab engaged in transportation services as described in subdivision (a) of Section 53075.5 of the Government Code, shall be presented upon request, during regular business hours, to an authorized representative of the administrative agency responsible for issuing permits to taxicab transportation services pursuant to Section 53075.5 of the Government Code.
SEC. 4.
No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution.

Summary: The Passenger Charter-party Carriers’ Act, with certain exceptions, prohibits a charter-party carrier of passengers from engaging in transportation services subject to regulation by the Public Utilities Commission without obtaining a specified certificate or permit, as appropriate, from the commission, and imposes various other requirements. Existing law requires, as a condition to obtaining a certificate or permit, that the applicant, among other things, participate in a program to regularly check the driving records of all vehicle operators and provide a mandatory controlled substance and alcohol testing certification program. A violation of the act is generally a misdemeanor. Existing law defines a transportation network company as an organization, whether a corporation, partnership, sole proprietor, or other form, operating in California that provides prearranged transportation services for compensation using an online-enabled platform to connect passengers with drivers using their personal vehicles. This bill would prohibit the commission from issuing or renewing a permit or certificate to a charter-party carrier of passengers unless the applicant, in addition to existing requirements, participates in the Department of Motor Vehicles Vehicles ’ pull-notice system. This bill would specifically require a transportation network company to comply with this provision and to provide for a mandatory controlled substance and alcohol testing certification program. The bill would also require a transportation network company to register any vehicle used in the transportation of passengers for compensation with the commission and display an identifying decal issued symbol prescribed by the commission on the vehicle. The bill would require that drivers hired or initially retained by a transportation network company on or after January 1, 2016, be subject to mandatory drug and alcohol testing prior to employment or retention and that drivers hired or initially retained before January 1, 2016, complete a drug and alcohol test before January 1, 2017. Because a violation of these provisions would be a crime, the bill would impose a state-mandated local program. The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement. This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.

An act to amend Section 5374 of, and to add Section 5444 to, the Public Utilities Code, and to amend Section 1808.1 of the Vehicle Code, relating to transportation.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 69432.7 of the Education Code, as amended by Section 2 of Chapter 667 of the Statutes of 2014, is amended to read:
69432.7.
As used in this chapter, the following terms have the following meanings:
(a) An “academic year” is July 1 to June 30, inclusive. The starting date of a session shall determine the academic year in which it is included.
(b) “Access costs” means living expenses and expenses for transportation, supplies, and books.
(c) “Award year” means one academic year, or the equivalent, of attendance at a qualifying institution.
(d) “College grade point average” and “community college grade point average” mean a grade point average calculated on the basis of all college work completed, except for nontransferable units and courses not counted in the computation for admission to a California public institution of higher education that grants a baccalaureate degree.
(e) “Commission” means the Student Aid Commission.
(f) “Enrollment status” means part- or full-time status.
(1) “Part time,” for purposes of Cal Grant eligibility, means 6 to 11 semester units, inclusive, or the equivalent.
(2) “Full time,” for purposes of Cal Grant eligibility, means 12 or more semester units or the equivalent.
(g) “Expected family contribution,” with respect to an applicant, shall be determined using the federal methodology pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 69506 (as established by Title IV of the federal Higher Education Act of 1965, as amended (20 U.S.C. Sec. 1070 et seq.)) and applicable rules and regulations adopted by the commission.
(h) “High school grade point average” means a grade point average calculated on a 4.0 scale, using all academic coursework, for the sophomore year, the summer following the sophomore year, the junior year, and the summer following the junior year, excluding physical education, Reserve Officers’ Training Corps (ROTC), and remedial courses, and computed pursuant to regulations of the commission. However, for high school graduates who apply after their senior year, “high school grade point average” includes senior year coursework.
(i) “Instructional program of not less than one academic year” means a program of study that results in the award of an associate or baccalaureate degree or certificate requiring at least 24 semester units or the equivalent, or that results in eligibility for transfer from a community college to a baccalaureate degree program.
(j) “Instructional program of not less than two academic years” means a program of study that results in the award of an associate or baccalaureate degree requiring at least 48 semester units or the equivalent, or that results in eligibility for transfer from a community college to a baccalaureate degree program.
(k) (1) “Maximum household income and asset levels” means the applicable household income and household asset levels for participants, including new applicants and renewing recipients, in the Cal Grant Program, as defined and adopted in regulations by the commission for the 2001–02 academic year, which shall be set pursuant to the following income and asset ceiling amounts:

CAL GRANT PROGRAM INCOME CEILINGS

Cal Grant A,
C, and T
Cal Grant B
Dependent and Independent students with dependents*
Family Size
Six or more
$74,100
$40,700
Five
$68,700
$37,700
Four
$64,100
$33,700
Three
$59,000
$30,300
Two
$57,600
$26,900

Independent

Single, no dependents
$23,500
$23,500
Married
$26,900
$26,900
*Applies to independent students with dependents other than a
spouse.
CAL GRANT PROGRAM ASSET CEILINGS

Cal Grant A,
C, and T
Cal Grant B

Dependent** _____ _____

$49,600

$49,600
Independent _____ _____
$23,600
$23,600
**Applies to independent students with dependents other than a
spouse.
(2) The commission shall annually adjust the maximum household income and asset levels based on the percentage change in the cost of living within the meaning of paragraph (1) of subdivision (e) of Section 8 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution. The maximum household income and asset levels applicable to a renewing recipient shall be the greater of the adjusted maximum household income and asset levels or the maximum household income and asset levels at the time of the renewing recipient’s initial Cal Grant award. For a recipient who was initially awarded a Cal Grant for an academic year before the 2011–12 academic year, the maximum household income and asset levels shall be the greater of the adjusted maximum household income and asset levels or the 2010–11 academic year maximum household income and asset levels. An applicant or renewal recipient who qualifies to be considered under the simplified needs test established by federal law for student assistance shall be presumed to meet the asset level test under this section. Before disbursing any Cal Grant funds, a qualifying institution shall be obligated, under the terms of its institutional participation agreement with the commission, to resolve any conflicts that may exist in the data the institution possesses relating to that individual.
(l) (1) “Qualifying institution” means an institution that complies with paragraphs (2) and (3) and is any of the following:
(A) A California private or independent postsecondary educational institution that participates in the Pell Grant Program and in at least two of the following federal student aid programs:
(i) Federal Work-Study Program.
(ii) Federal Stafford Loan Program.
(iii) Federal Supplemental Educational Opportunity Grant Program.
(B) A nonprofit institution headquartered and operating in California that certifies to the commission that 10 percent of the institution’s operating budget, as demonstrated in an audited financial statement, is expended for purposes of institutionally funded student financial aid in the form of grants, that demonstrates to the commission that it has the administrative capacity to administer the funds, that is accredited by the Western Association of Schools and Colleges, and that meets any other state-required criteria adopted by regulation by the commission in consultation with the Department of Finance. A regionally accredited institution that was deemed qualified by the commission to participate in the Cal Grant Program for the 2000–01 academic year shall retain its eligibility as long as it maintains its existing accreditation status.
(C) A California public postsecondary educational institution.
(2) (A) The institution shall provide information on where to access California license examination passage rates for the most recent available year from graduates of its undergraduate programs leading to employment for which passage of a California licensing examination is required, if that data is electronically available through the Internet Web site of a California licensing or regulatory agency. For purposes of this paragraph, “provide” may exclusively include placement of an Internet Web site address labeled as an access point for the data on the passage rates of recent program graduates on the Internet Web site where enrollment information is also located, on an Internet Web site that provides centralized admissions information for postsecondary educational systems with multiple campuses, or on applications for enrollment or other program information distributed to prospective students.
(B) The institution shall be responsible for certifying to the commission compliance with the requirements of subparagraph (A).
(3) (A) The commission shall certify by November 1 of each year the institution’s latest official three-year cohort default rate and graduation rate as most recently reported by the United States Department of Education. For purposes of this section, the graduation rate is the percentage of full-time, first-time degree or certificate-seeking undergraduate students who graduate in 150 percent or less of the expected time to complete degree requirements as most recently reported publicly in any format, including preliminary data records, by the United States Department of Education.
(B) For purposes of the 2011–12 academic year, an otherwise qualifying institution with a three-year cohort default rate reported by the United States Department of Education that is equal to or greater than 24.6 percent shall be ineligible for initial and renewal Cal Grant awards at the institution.
(C) For purposes of the 2012–13 academic year, and every academic year thereafter, an otherwise qualifying institution with a three-year cohort default rate that is equal to or greater than 15.5 percent, as certified by the commission on October 1, 2011, and every year thereafter, shall be ineligible for initial and renewal Cal Grant awards at the institution.
(D) (i) An otherwise qualifying institution that becomes ineligible under this paragraph for initial and renewal Cal Grant awards shall regain its eligibility for the academic year for which it satisfies the requirements established in subparagraph (B), (C), or (F), as applicable.
(ii) If the United States Department of Education corrects or revises an institution’s three-year cohort default rate or graduation rate that originally failed to satisfy the requirements established in subparagraph (B), (C), or (F), as applicable, and the correction or revision results in the institution’s three-year cohort default rate or graduation rate satisfying those requirements, that institution shall immediately regain its eligibility for the academic year to which the corrected or revised three-year cohort default rate or graduation rate would have been applied.
(E) An otherwise qualifying institution for which no three-year cohort default rate or graduation rate has been reported by the United States Department of Education shall be provisionally eligible to participate in the Cal Grant Program until a three-year cohort default rate or graduation rate has been reported for the institution by the United States Department of Education.
(F) For purposes of the 2012–13 academic year, and every academic year thereafter, an otherwise qualifying institution with a graduation rate of 30 percent or less, as certified by the commission pursuant to subparagraph (A), shall be ineligible for initial and renewal Cal Grant awards at the institution, except as provided for in subparagraph (H).
(G) Notwithstanding any other law, the requirements of this paragraph shall not apply to institutions with 40 percent or less of undergraduate students borrowing federal student loans, using information reported to the United States Department of Education for the academic year two years before the academic year in which the commission is certifying the three-year cohort default rate or graduation rate pursuant to subparagraph (A).
(H) Notwithstanding subparagraph (F), an otherwise qualifying institution that maintains a three-year cohort default rate that is less than 15.5 percent and a graduation rate above 20 percent for students taking 150 percent or less of the expected time to complete degree requirements, as certified by the commission pursuant to subparagraph (A), shall be eligible for initial and renewal Cal Grant awards at the institution through the 2016–17 academic year.
(I) The commission shall do all of the following:
(i) Notify initial Cal Grant recipients seeking to attend, or attending, an institution that is ineligible for initial and renewal Cal Grant awards under subparagraph (C) or (F) that the institution is ineligible for initial Cal Grant awards for the academic year for which the student received an initial Cal Grant award.
(ii) Notify renewal Cal Grant recipients attending an institution that is ineligible for initial and renewal Cal Grant awards at the institution under subparagraph (C) or (F) that the student’s Cal Grant award will be reduced by 20 percent, or eliminated, as appropriate, if the student attends the ineligible institution in an academic year in which the institution is ineligible.
(iii) Provide initial and renewal Cal Grant recipients seeking to attend, or attending, an institution that is ineligible for initial and renewal Cal Grant awards at the institution under subparagraph (C) or (F) with a complete list of all California postsecondary educational institutions at which the student would be eligible to receive an unreduced Cal Grant award.
(iv) (I)   Establish an appeal process for an otherwise qualifying institution that fails to satisfy the three-year cohort default rate and graduation rate requirements in subparagraphs (C) and (F), respectively.
(II) The commission may grant an appeal for an academic year only if the commission has determined the institution has a cohort size of 20 individuals or less and the cohort is not representative of the overall institutional performance.
(m) “Satisfactory academic progress” means those criteria required by applicable federal standards published in Title 34 of the Code of Federal Regulations. The commission may adopt regulations defining “satisfactory academic progress” in a manner that is consistent with those federal standards.

Summary: The Cal Grant Program establishes the Cal Grant A and B Entitlement awards, the California Community College Transfer Entitlement awards, the Competitive Cal Grant A and B awards, the Cal Grant C awards, and the Cal Grant T awards under the administration of the Student Aid Commission, and establishes eligibility requirements for awards under these programs for participating students attending qualifying institutions. Existing law requires the commission to certify by November 1 of each year a qualifying institution’s latest 3-year cohort default rate and graduation rate as most recently reported by the United States Department of Education. Existing law provides that an otherwise qualifying institution with a 3-year cohort default rate that is equal to or greater than 15.5 is ineligible for initial and renewal Cal Grant awards at the institution. Existing law provides that an otherwise qualifying institution is ineligible for an initial or renewal Cal Grant award at the institution if the institution has a graduation rate of 30 or less for students taking 150 or less of the expected time to complete degree requirements, as specified, with certain exceptions. This bill would require the commission to establish an appeal process for an otherwise qualifying institution that fails to satisfy the 3-year cohort default rate and graduation rate requirements and would authorize the commission to grant the appeal for an academic year only if the commission makes a specified determination.

An act to amend Section 69432.7 of the Education Code, relating to financial aid.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 19322 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:
19322.
(a) A person shall not submit an application for a state license issued by a licensing authority pursuant to this chapter unless that person has received a license, permit, or authorization from the local jurisdiction. An applicant for any type of state license issued pursuant to this chapter shall do all of the following:
(1) Electronically submit to the Department of Justice fingerprint images and related information required by the Department of Justice for the purpose of obtaining information as to the existence and content of a record of state or federal convictions and arrests, and information as to the existence and content of a record of state or federal convictions and arrests for which the Department of Justice establishes that the person is free on bail or on his or her own recognizance, pending trial or appeal.
(A) The Department of Justice shall provide a response to the licensing authority pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (p) of Section 11105 of the Penal Code.
(B) The licensing authority shall request from the Department of Justice subsequent notification service, as provided pursuant to Section 11105.2 of the Penal Code, for applicants.
(C) The Department of Justice shall charge the applicant a fee sufficient to cover the reasonable cost of processing the requests described in this paragraph.
(2) Provide documentation issued by the local jurisdiction in which the proposed business is operating certifying that the applicant is or will be in compliance with all local ordinances and regulations.
(3) Provide evidence of the legal right to occupy and use the proposed location. For an applicant seeking a cultivator, distributor, manufacturing, testing, transporter, or dispensary license, provide a statement from the owner of real property or their agent where the cultivation, distribution, manufacturing, testing, transport, or dispensing of commercial medical cannabis activities will occur, as proof to demonstrate the landowner has acknowledged and consented to permit cultivation, distribution, manufacturing, testing, transport, or dispensary activities to be conducted on the property by the tenant applicant.
(4) If the application is for a cultivator or a dispensary, provide evidence that the proposed location is located beyond at least a 600-foot radius from a school, as required by Section 11362.768 of the Health and Safety Code.
(5) Provide a statement, signed by the applicant under penalty of perjury, that the information provided is complete, true, and accurate.
(6) (A) For an applicant with 20 or more employees, provide a statement that the applicant will enter into, or demonstrate that it has already entered into, and abide by the terms of a labor peace agreement.
(B) For the purposes of this paragraph, “employee” does not include a supervisor.
(C) For purposes of this paragraph, “supervisor” means an individual having authority, in the interest of the licensee, to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, assign, reward, or discipline other employees, or responsibility to direct them or to adjust their grievances, or effectively to recommend such action, if, in connection with the foregoing, the exercise of that authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature, but requires the use of independent judgment.
(7) Provide the applicant’s valid seller’s permit number issued pursuant to Part 1 (commencing with Section 6001) of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code or indicate that the applicant is currently applying for a seller’s permit.
(8) Provide any other information required by the licensing authority.
(9) For an applicant seeking a cultivation license, provide a statement declaring the applicant is an “agricultural employer,” as defined in the Alatorre-Zenovich-Dunlap-Berman Agricultural Labor Relations Act of 1975 (Part 3.5 (commencing with Section 1140) of Division 2 of the Labor Code), to the extent not prohibited by law.
(10) Pay all applicable fees required for licensure by the licensing authority.
(11) Provide proof of a bond to cover the costs of destruction of medical cannabis or medical cannabis products if necessitated by a violation of licensing requirements.
(b) For applicants seeking licensure to cultivate, distribute, manufacture, test, or dispense medical cannabis or medical cannabis products, the application shall also include a detailed description of the applicant’s operating procedures for all of the following, as required by the licensing authority:
(1) Cultivation.
(2) Extraction and infusion methods.
(3) The transportation process.
(4) Inventory procedures.
(5) Quality control procedures.
(6) Security protocols.
(c) On and after July 1, 2018, an applicant with 20 or more employees shall attest on the application that the applicant will implement an employee training program approved by the licensing authority within one year of licensure, pursuant to Section 19326.5.
SEC. 2.
Section 19323 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:
19323.
(a) A licensing authority shall deny an application if the applicant or the premises for which a state license is applied does not qualify for licensure under this chapter or the rules and regulations for the state license.
(b) A licensing authority may deny an application for licensure or renewal of a state license, or issue a conditional license, if any of the following conditions apply:
(1) Failure to comply with the provisions of this chapter or any rule or regulation adopted pursuant to this chapter, including, but not limited to, any requirement imposed to protect natural resources, instream flow, and water quality pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 19332.
(2) Conduct that constitutes grounds for denial of licensure pursuant to Chapter 2 (commencing with Section 480) of Division 1.5.
(3) The applicant has failed to provide information required by the licensing authority.
(4) The applicant or licensee has been convicted of an offense that is substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of the business or profession for which the application is made, except that if the licensing authority determines that the applicant or licensee is otherwise suitable to be issued a license and granting the license would not compromise public safety, the licensing authority shall conduct a thorough review of the nature of the crime, conviction, circumstances, and evidence of rehabilitation of the applicant, and shall evaluate the suitability of the applicant or licensee to be issued a license based on the evidence found through the review. In determining which offenses are substantially related to the qualifications, functions, or duties of the business or profession for which the application is made, the licensing authority shall include, but not be limited to, the following:
(A) A felony conviction for the illegal possession for sale, sale, manufacture, transportation, or cultivation of a controlled substance.
(B) A violent felony conviction, as specified in subdivision (c) of Section 667.5 of the Penal Code.
(C) A serious felony conviction, as specified in subdivision (c) of Section 1192.7 of the Penal Code.
(D) A felony conviction involving fraud, deceit, or embezzlement.
(5) The applicant, or any of its officers, directors, or owners, is a licensed physician making patient recommendations for medical cannabis pursuant to Section 11362.7 of the Health and Safety Code.
(6) The applicant or any of its officers, directors, or owners has been subject to fines or penalties for cultivation or production of a controlled substance on public or private lands pursuant to Section 12025 or 12025.1 of the Fish and Game Code.
(7) The applicant, or any of its officers, directors, or owners, has been sanctioned by a licensing authority or a city, county, or city and county for unlicensed commercial cannabis activities or has had a license revoked under this chapter in the three years immediately preceding the date the application is filed with the licensing authority.
(8) Failure to obtain and maintain a valid seller’s permit required pursuant to Part 1 (commencing with Section 6001) of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code.
(9) The applicant or any of its officers, directors, owners, employees, or authorized agents have failed to comply with any operating procedure required pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 19322.
(10) Conduct that constitutes grounds for disciplinary action pursuant to this chapter.
(c) On and after July 1, 2018, the licensing authority shall deny an application of an applicant with 20 or more employees unless the applicant attests on the application that the applicant will implement an employee training program approved by the licensing authority within one year of licensure, pursuant to Section 19326.5.
SEC. 3.
Section 19326.5 is added to the Business and Professions Code, to read:
19326.5.
(a) A licensee shall implement an employee training program to educate, inform, and train the licensee’s employees on compliance with this chapter. A licensee may employ or contract with a third-party provider to provide the employee training program. An employee training program shall include, but is not limited to, training on applicable statutory requirements, industry best practices, occupational health and safety standards, and workplace protections.
(b) (1) Each licensing authority shall adopt standards for the approval of employee training programs. Those standards shall prohibit approval of an employee training program provided by or through an apprenticeship program approved by the Chief of the Division of Apprenticeship Standards.
Those standards shall also prohibit employee training programs provided by licensees except when a licensee provides a training program to its own employees.
(2) A licensing authority may approve a workplace training organization as a third-party provider of an employee training program. For purposes of this paragraph, a “workplace training organization” is a labor union organization representing wage earners or salaried employees for mutual aid and protection and for dealing collectively with cannabis employers. A licensing authority shall not be limited to approving workplace training organizations as third-party providers of employee training
programs.
programs
; however, a licensing authority shall not approve a third-party provider of an employee training program if the provider is a licensee, except as provided in paragraph (1).
(c) A licensing authority shall revoke the license of any licensee with 20 or more employees that fails to implement an employee training program as required by this section within one year of licensure.
(d) Each licensing authority shall charge a fee for approving an employee training program. Revenues collected pursuant to this subdivision shall be deposited in the appropriate fee account within the Medical
Marijuana
Cannabis
Regulation and Safety Act Fund established pursuant to Section
19350.
19351.
Total fees assessed shall not exceed the reasonable regulatory costs. Each licensing authority may adjust fees as needed, but no more than once per year, to generate sufficient revenue to cover the costs of employee training program approval.
(e) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2018.
SEC. 4.
No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district will be incurred because this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution.

Summary: Existing law, the Compassionate Use Act of 1996, an initiative measure enacted by the approval of Proposition 215 at the November 5, 1996, statewide general election, authorizes the use of marijuana for medical purposes. Existing law, the Medical Marijuana Cannabis Regulation and Safety Act . enacted by the Legislature, establishes within the Department of Consumer Affairs the Bureau of Medical Marijuana Cannabis Regulation, and provides for the state licensure and regulation of certain commercial medical marijuana cannabis activities by the Department of Consumer Affairs, bureau, the Department of Food and Agriculture, or the State Department of Public Health, as specified. MMRSA MCRSA requires an applicant for state licensure to provide specified information and a statement, signed by the applicant under penalty of perjury, that the information is complete, true, and accurate. MMRSA MCRSA authorizes a state licensing authority to deny an application if specified conditions are met, or issue a conditional license under certain conditions, and requires a state licensee, among other things, to obtain applicable local licenses prior to commencing commercial cannabis activity and to keep accurate records of commercial cannabis activity. This bill would require a licensee to implement, as specified, an employee training program for the licensee’s employees regarding compliance with MMRSA, MCRSA, as specified. The bill would require an applicant with 20 or more employees to attest on the application that the applicant will implement an employee training program approved by the licensing authority within one year of licensure, as specified, thereby modifying the crime of perjury and imposing a state-mandated local program. The bill would require the licensing authority to deny an application of an applicant with 20 or more employees unless the applicant makes the above-mentioned attestation on the application. The bill would require each licensing authority to adopt standards for the approval of employee training programs. The bill would prohibit the licensing authority from approving a program provided by or through certain apprenticeship programs. programs and programs provided by a licensee under MCRSA, except as specified. The bill would authorize the licensing authority to approve a workplace training organization, as defined, as a 3rd-party provider. The bill would require each licensing authority to charge a fee for approving an employee training program, as specified. The bill would require that the fees collected be deposited in the appropriate account within the Medical Marijuana Cannabis Regulation and Safety Act Fund. The bill would authorize each licensing authority to adjust fees as needed once a year to cover the costs of employee training program approval. The bill would make these provisions operative on July 1, 2018. The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement. This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.

An act to amend Sections 19322 and 19323 of, and to add Section 19326.5 to, the Business and Professions Code, relating to medical cannabis.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 502 of the Penal Code is amended to read:
502.
(a) It is the intent of the Legislature in enacting this section to expand the degree of protection afforded to individuals, businesses, and governmental agencies from tampering, interference, damage, and unauthorized access to lawfully created computer data and computer systems. The Legislature finds and declares that the proliferation of computer technology has resulted in a concomitant proliferation of computer crime and other forms of unauthorized access to computers, computer systems, and computer data.
The Legislature further finds and declares that protection of the integrity of all types and forms of lawfully created computers, computer systems, and computer data is vital to the protection of the privacy of individuals as well as to the well-being of financial institutions, business concerns, governmental agencies, and others within this state that lawfully utilize those computers, computer systems, and data.
(b) For the purposes of this section, the following terms have the following meanings:
(1) “Access” means to gain entry to, instruct, cause input to, cause output from, cause data processing with, or communicate with, the logical, arithmetical, or memory function resources of a computer, computer system, or computer network.
(2) “Computer network” means any system that provides communications between one or more computer systems and input/output devices, including, but not limited to, display terminals, remote systems, mobile devices, and printers connected by telecommunication facilities.
(3) “Computer program or software” means a set of instructions or statements, and related data, that when executed in actual or modified form, cause a computer, computer system, or computer network to perform specified functions.
(4) “Computer services” includes, but is not limited to, computer time, data processing, or storage functions, Internet services, electronic mail services, electronic message services, or other uses of a computer, computer system, or computer network.
(5) “Computer system” means a device or collection of devices, including support devices and excluding calculators that are not programmable and capable of being used in conjunction with external files, one or more of which contain computer programs, electronic instructions, input data, and output data, that performs functions, including, but not limited to, logic, arithmetic, data storage and retrieval, communication, and control.
(6) “Government computer system” means any computer system, or part thereof, that is owned, operated, or used by any federal, state, or local governmental entity.
(7) “Public safety infrastructure computer system” means any computer system, or part thereof, that is necessary for the health and safety of the public including computer systems owned, operated, or used by drinking water and wastewater treatment facilities, hospitals, emergency service providers, telecommunication companies, and gas and electric utility companies.
(8) “Data” means a representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, computer software, or computer programs or instructions. Data may be in any form, in storage media, or as stored in the memory of the computer or in transit or presented on a display device.
(9) “Supporting documentation” includes, but is not limited to, all information, in any form, pertaining to the design, construction, classification, implementation, use, or modification of a computer, computer system, computer network, computer program, or computer software, which information is not generally available to the public and is necessary for the operation of a computer, computer system, computer network, computer program, or computer software.
(10) “Injury” means any alteration, deletion, damage, or destruction of a computer system, computer network, computer program, or data caused by the access, or the denial of access to legitimate users of a computer system, network, or program.
(11) “Victim expenditure” means any expenditure reasonably and necessarily incurred by the owner or lessee to verify that a computer system, computer network, computer program, or data was or was not altered, deleted, damaged, or destroyed by the access.
(12) “Computer contaminant” means any set of computer instructions that are designed to modify, damage, destroy, record, or transmit information within a computer, computer system, or computer network without the intent or permission of the owner of the information. They include, but are not limited to, a group of computer instructions commonly called viruses or worms, that are self-replicating or self-propagating and are designed to contaminate other computer programs or computer data, consume computer resources, modify, destroy, record, or transmit data, or in some other fashion usurp the normal operation of the computer, computer system, or computer network.
(13) “Internet domain name” means a globally unique, hierarchical reference to an Internet host or service, assigned through centralized Internet naming authorities, comprising a series of character strings separated by periods, with the rightmost character string specifying the top of the hierarchy.
(14) “Electronic mail” means an electronic message or computer file that is transmitted between two or more telecommunications devices; computers; computer networks, regardless of whether the network is a local, regional, or global network; or electronic devices capable of receiving electronic messages, regardless of whether the message is converted to hard copy format after receipt, viewed upon transmission, or stored for later retrieval.
(15) “Profile” means either of the following:
(A) A configuration of user data required by a computer so that the user may access programs or services and have the desired functionality on that computer.
(B) An Internet Web site user’s personal page or section of a page that is made up of data, in text or graphical form, that displays significant, unique, or identifying information, including, but not limited to, listing acquaintances, interests, associations, activities, or personal statements.
(c) Except as provided in subdivision (h), any person who commits any of the following acts is guilty of a public offense:
(1) Knowingly accesses and without permission alters, damages, deletes, destroys, or otherwise uses any data, computer, computer system, or computer network in order to either (A) devise or execute any scheme or artifice to defraud, deceive, or extort, or (B) wrongfully control or obtain money, property, or data.
(2) Knowingly accesses and without permission takes, copies, or makes use of any data from a computer, computer system, or computer network, or takes or copies any supporting documentation, whether existing or residing internal or external to a computer, computer system, or computer network.
(3) Knowingly and without permission uses or causes to be used computer services.
(4) Knowingly accesses and without permission adds, alters, damages, deletes, or destroys any data, computer software, or computer programs which reside or exist internal or external to a computer, computer system, or computer network.
(5) Knowingly and without permission disrupts or causes the disruption of computer services or denies or causes the denial of computer services to an authorized user of a computer, computer system, or computer network.
(6) Knowingly and without permission provides or assists in providing a means of accessing a computer, computer system, or computer network in violation of this section.
(7) Knowingly and without permission accesses or causes to be accessed any computer, computer system, or computer network.
(8) Knowingly introduces any computer contaminant into any computer, computer system, or computer network.
(9) Knowingly and without permission uses the Internet domain name or profile of another individual, corporation, or entity in connection with the sending of one or more electronic mail messages or posts and thereby damages or causes damage to a computer, computer data, computer system, or computer network.
(10) Knowingly and without permission disrupts or causes the disruption of government computer services or denies or causes the denial of government computer services to an authorized user of a government computer, computer system, or computer network.
(11) Knowingly accesses and without permission adds, alters, damages, deletes, or destroys any data, computer software, or computer programs which reside or exist internal or external to a public safety infrastructure computer system computer, computer system, or computer network.
(12) Knowingly and without permission disrupts or causes the disruption of public safety infrastructure computer system computer services or denies or causes the denial of computer services to an authorized user of a public safety infrastructure computer system computer, computer system, or computer network.
(13) Knowingly and without permission provides or assists in providing a means of accessing a computer, computer system, or public safety infrastructure computer system computer, computer system, or computer network in violation of this section.
(14) Knowingly introduces any computer contaminant into any public safety infrastructure computer system computer, computer system, or computer network.
(d) (1) Any person who violates any of the provisions of paragraph (1), (2), (4), (5), (10), (11), or (12) of subdivision (c) is guilty of a felony, punishable by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for 16 months, or two or three years and a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or a misdemeanor, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, by a fine not exceeding five thousand dollars ($5,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(2) Any person who violates paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) is punishable as follows:
(A) For the first violation that does not result in injury, and where the value of the computer services used does not exceed nine hundred fifty dollars ($950), by a fine not exceeding five thousand dollars ($5,000), or by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(B) For any violation that results in a victim expenditure in an amount greater than five thousand dollars ($5,000) or in an injury, or if the value of the computer services used exceeds nine hundred fifty dollars ($950), or for any second or subsequent violation, by a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for 16 months, or two or three years, or by both that fine and imprisonment, or by a fine not exceeding five thousand dollars ($5,000), or by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(3) Any person who violates paragraph (6), (7), or (13) of subdivision (c) is punishable as follows:
(A) For a first violation that does not result in injury, an infraction punishable by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000).
(B) For any violation that results in a victim expenditure in an amount not greater than five thousand dollars ($5,000), or for a second or subsequent violation, by a fine not exceeding five thousand dollars ($5,000), or by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(C) For any violation that results in a victim expenditure in an amount greater than five thousand dollars ($5,000), by a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170 for 16 months, or two or three years, or by both that fine and imprisonment, or by a fine not exceeding five thousand dollars ($5,000), or by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(4) Any person who violates paragraph (8) or (14) of subdivision (c) is punishable as follows:
(A) For a first violation that does not result in injury, a misdemeanor punishable by a fine not exceeding five thousand dollars ($5,000), or by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(B) For any violation that results in injury, or for a second or subsequent violation, by a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by imprisonment pursuant to subdivision (h) of Section 1170, or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(5) Any person who violates paragraph (9) of subdivision (c) is punishable as follows:
(A) For a first violation that does not result in injury, an infraction punishable by a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars ($1,000).
(B) For any violation that results in injury, or for a second or subsequent violation, by a fine not exceeding five thousand dollars ($5,000), or by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, or by both that fine and imprisonment.
(e) (1) In addition to any other civil remedy available, the owner or lessee of the computer, computer system, computer network, computer program, or data who suffers damage or loss by reason of a violation of any of the provisions of subdivision (c) may bring a civil action against the violator for compensatory damages and injunctive relief or other equitable relief. Compensatory damages shall include any expenditure reasonably and necessarily incurred by the owner or lessee to verify that a computer system, computer network, computer program, or data was or was not altered, damaged, or deleted by the access. For the purposes of actions authorized by this subdivision, the conduct of an unemancipated minor shall be imputed to the parent or legal guardian having control or custody of the minor, pursuant to the provisions of Section 1714.1 of the Civil Code.
(2) In any action brought pursuant to this subdivision the court may award reasonable attorney’s fees.
(3) A community college, state university, or academic institution accredited in this state is required to include computer-related crimes as a specific violation of college or university student conduct policies and regulations that may subject a student to disciplinary sanctions up to and including dismissal from the academic institution. This paragraph shall not apply to the University of California unless the Board of Regents adopts a resolution to that effect.
(4) In any action brought pursuant to this subdivision for a willful violation of the provisions of subdivision (c), where it is proved by clear and convincing evidence that a defendant has been guilty of oppression, fraud, or malice as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 3294 of the Civil Code, the court may additionally award punitive or exemplary damages.
(5) No action may be brought pursuant to this subdivision unless it is initiated within three years of the date of the act complained of, or the date of the discovery of the damage, whichever is later.
(f) This section shall not be construed to preclude the applicability of any other provision of the criminal law of this state which applies or may apply to any transaction, nor shall it make illegal any employee labor relations activities that are within the scope and protection of state or federal labor laws.
(g) Any computer, computer system, computer network, or any software or data, owned by the defendant, that is used during the commission of any public offense described in subdivision (c) or any computer, owned by the defendant, which is used as a repository for the storage of software or data illegally obtained in violation of subdivision (c) shall be subject to forfeiture, as specified in Section 502.01.
(h) (1) Subdivision (c) does not apply to punish any acts which are committed by a person within the scope of his or her lawful employment. For purposes of this section, a person acts within the scope of his or her employment when he or she performs acts which are reasonably necessary to the performance of his or her work assignment.
(2) Paragraph (3) of subdivision (c) does not apply to penalize any acts committed by a person acting outside of his or her lawful employment, provided that the employee’s activities do not cause an injury, to the employer or another, or provided that the value of supplies or computer services which are used does not exceed an accumulated total of two hundred fifty dollars ($250).
(i) No activity exempted from prosecution under paragraph (2) of subdivision (h) which incidentally violates paragraph (2), (4), or (7) of subdivision (c) shall be prosecuted under those paragraphs.
(j) For purposes of bringing a civil or a criminal action under this section, a person who causes, by any means, the access of a computer, computer system, or computer network in one jurisdiction from another jurisdiction is deemed to have personally accessed the computer, computer system, or computer network in each jurisdiction.
(k) In determining the terms and conditions applicable to a person convicted of a violation of this section the court shall consider the following:
(1) The court shall consider prohibitions on access to and use of computers.
(2) Except as otherwise required by law, the court shall consider alternate sentencing, including community service, if the defendant shows remorse and recognition of the wrongdoing, and an inclination not to repeat the offense.

Summary: Existing law establishes various crimes relating to computer services and systems, including to knowingly and without permission disrupt or cause the disruption of computer services including government computer services or public safety infrastructure computer system computer services, add, alter, damage, delete, or destroy any computer data, software, or program, introduce a computer contaminant, use the Internet domain name or profile of another. Existing law makes a violation of these provisions punishable by specified fines or terms of imprisonment, or by both those fines and imprisonment. This bill would clarify the criminal penalties for specified computer crimes by making a person who violates those provisions guilty of a felony, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail for 16 months, or 2 or 3 years and a fine not exceeding $10,000, or a misdemeanor, punishable by imprisonment in a county jail not exceeding one year, by a fine not exceeding $5,000, or by both that fine and imprisonment.

An act to amend Section 502 of the Penal Code, relating to computer crimes.


The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.
Section 54141 of the Government Code is amended to read:
54141.
As used in this article:
(a) “Local agency” means county, city, whether general law or chartered, city and county, town, school district, municipal corporation, district, political subdivision, or any board, commission, or agency thereof, or other local public agency.
(b) “United States” includes any department, board, or agency thereof.
(c) “State” includes any department or agency thereof.
(d) “Legislative body” means a legislative body as defined in Section 54952.
(e) (1) “Surplus military equipment” means equipment made available to a local agency pursuant to Section 2576a of Title 10 of the United States Code.
(2) “Tactical surplus military equipment” means surplus military equipment identified on the list developed and maintained by the state coordinator pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 54145.
(f) “State coordinator” means the state agency that has signed a current memorandum of agreement with the federal Defense Logistics Agency for the purpose of administering a state program for acquiring surplus military equipment.
SEC. 2.
Section 54145 is added to the Government Code, to read:
54145.
(a) A local agency, other than a local law enforcement agency that is directly under the control of an elected officer, shall not apply to receive tactical surplus military equipment unless the legislative body of the local agency approves the acquisition of tactical surplus military equipment by ordinance or resolution, pursuant to subdivision (b), at a regular meeting held pursuant to the Ralph M. Brown Act (Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 54950)).
(b) The legislative body of a local agency may adopt an ordinance or resolution authorizing the local law enforcement agency in that jurisdiction to apply for tactical surplus military equipment. The ordinance or resolution shall comply with both of the following requirements:
(1) The ordinance shall include a list of the types of tactical surplus military equipment that the legislative body authorizes the local law enforcement agency to acquire.
(2) The legislative body shall review the ordinance or resolution at least annually. During the review, the legislative body shall vote on whether to renew the ordinance or resolution authorizing the acquisition of tactical surplus military equipment. If the legislative body does not approve a renewal pursuant to this paragraph, the authorization shall expire.
(c) This section shall not be construed to require the legislative body of a local agency to approve the acquisition of each individual item of tactical surplus military equipment, unless specified by the ordinance or resolution adopted pursuant to subdivision (b).
(d) The Legislature finds and declares that this section constitutes a matter of statewide concern, and shall apply to charter cities and charter counties. The provisions of this section shall supersede any inconsistent provisions in the charter of any city, county, or city and county.
(e) (1) The state coordinator, by January 31, 2016, shall develop a list of tactical surplus military equipment. The list shall identify surplus military equipment that warrants public input pursuant to this article. The state coordinator shall post this list on its Internet Web site and update it at least annually.
(2) In developing the list required by this subdivision, the state coordinator shall consider the current list of controlled property designated by the federal Defense Logistics Agency, as well as any other state or federal regulations or policies governing the use of surplus military equipment.
(3) The list required by this subdivision shall include, at minimum, the following types of equipment:
(A) Weapons.
(B) Armored vehicles.
(C) Watercraft.
(D) Aircraft.
(E) Other tactical equipment as determined by the state coordinator.
(f) Notwithstanding any other law, a local agency shall not apply to receive the following types of surplus military equipment:
(1) Tracked armored vehicles.
(2) Weaponized vehicles.
(3) Firearms of .50 caliber or greater.
(4) Ammunition of .50 caliber or greater.
(5) Grenade launchers.
(6) Bayonets.
(7) Camouflage uniforms.
SEC. 3.
The Legislature finds and declares that Section 2 of this act, which adds Section 54145 to the Government Code, furthers, within the meaning of paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 3 of Article I of the California Constitution, the purposes of that constitutional section as it relates to the right of public access to the meetings of local public bodies or the writings of local public officials and local agencies. Pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 3 of Article I of the California Constitution, the Legislature makes the following findings:
Requiring local agencies to hold public meetings prior to the acquisition of federal surplus military equipment further exposes that activity to public scrutiny and enhances public access to information concerning the conduct of the people’s business.
SEC. 4.
No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIII   B of the California Constitution because the only costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district under this act would result from a legislative mandate that is within the scope of paragraph (7) of subdivision (b) of Section 3 of Article I of the California Constitution.

Summary: Existing law, the Federal Surplus Property Acquisition Law of 1945, authorizes a local agency, as defined, to acquire surplus federal property without regard to any law which requires posting of notices or advertising for bids, inviting or receiving bids, delivery of purchases before payment, or prevents the local agency from bidding on federal surplus property. Existing federal law authorizes the Department of Defense to transfer surplus personal property, including arms and ammunition, to federal or state agencies for use in law enforcement activities, subject to specified conditions, at no cost to the acquiring agency. This bill would prohibit a local agency, other than a local law enforcement agency that is directly under the control of an elected officer, from applying to receive tactical surplus military equipment, as defined, pursuant to the above-described federal law unless the legislative body of the local agency approves the acquisition by ordinance or resolution at a regular public meeting. The bill would require the ordinance or resolution to include a list of the types of tactical surplus military equipment and would require the legislative body to review the ordinance at least annually, as specified. The bill would prohibit a local agency from applying to receive specified types of equipment. The bill would also declare that this is a matter of statewide concern. The bill would also require the state agency that has signed a current memorandum of agreement with the Defense Logistics Agency for the purpose of administering a state program for acquiring surplus military equipment to develop a list of tactical surplus military equipment by January 31, 2016, as specified, and post the list on its Internet Web site. By adding to the duties of local government officials, this bill would impose a state-mandated local program. The California Constitution requires local agencies, for the purpose of ensuring public access to the meetings of public bodies and the writings of public officials and agencies, to comply with a statutory enactment that amends or enacts laws relating to public records or open meetings and contains findings demonstrating that the enactment furthers the constitutional requirements relating to this purpose. This bill would make legislative findings to that effect. The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement. This bill would provide that no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.

An act to amend Section 54141 of, and to add Section 54145 to, the Government Code, relating to local government.